<?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1"?>
<?xml-stylesheet type="text/css" href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/rss.css"?>
<rss version="2.0">
<channel>
<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Abortion"</title>
<description>You ask. Philosophers answer.</description>
<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/</link>	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Richard Heck responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Suppose a woman hates to fold laundry and is some sort of embryological neuroscientist.  The woman conceives a child and takes a potion she has developed at an early stage before the embryo is conscious and when abortion is currently permissible such that when the child is born, the child has no desires other to fold laundry and put it away.  The child is a sort of willing laundry slave.  Let us suppose that the child is incapable of having any other desires than to do laundry and is incapable of being happy doing anything else.  In fact, the child is completely happy in this state of laundry slavery.  I have the intuition that the embryo is harmed at the moment the potion is taken even though the child who is born is incapable of objecting.  If it is morally wrong to deny the embryo of its future freedom at the point when the potion is taken, why is it okay to deny the embryo of its future life at that same point through an abortion?  The existence of future person who is harmed doesn't seem to matter in the laundry slave case, so why does it matter in the abortion case? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Richard Heck<br />

<blockquote><p>Different people will have different views about this, but I think the obvious thing to say is this. Taking the potion you described harms a <em>person</em> who will one day exist. Having an abortion does not harm a person who will one day exist. So that is the difference: In the one case, a person is harmed, but not in the other. That person does not exist at the time the harm is done, but I think you are correct that the person does not <em>need</em> to exist at that time to be harmed.</p><p>To see the importance of this, note that a similar case can be described even if the woman takes the potion before any child is conceived. In that case, no independent life exists at all, and yet it seems as if taking the potion is morally objectionable, for much the same reason. </p><p>There are complications here, surrounding the idea that the woman's behavior is wrong even if no child is ever conceived, on the ground that she risked harming someone. But I'll leave it to you, and others, to work this out. One important point is that, so far as I can see, "X risked harming someone" does not imply "There is someone X risked harming", any more than "X was baking a cake when she died" implies "There was a cake that X was baking when she died." (X died before any such cake came into existence.)<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 13 May 2009 15:02:09 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2687</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion, Ethics - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ A friend of mine recently gave me a copy of an official report released by the United States Senate Subcommittee.  Apparently they invited medical and scientific officials from all across the world to discuss the scientific status of a fetus.  There wasn’t any debate.  All agreed that human life began at some point during the initial conception except one who said he didn’t know.  Here’s a quote from the report.<br><br>“Physicians, biologists, and other scientists agree that conception marks the beginning of the life of a human being - a being that is alive and is a member of the human species. There is overwhelming agreement on this point in countless medical, biological, and scientific writings.”  <br><br>Subcommittee on Separation of Powers to Senate Judiciary Committee S-158, Report, 97th Congress, 1st Session, 1981<br><br>I did some further snooping on the internet and found that the medical and scientific community is in universal agreement on the fact that human life begins upon conception.  This leads me to a few questions.  Does scientific life necessarily coincide with moral life?  In a secular society do we have room to make judgments based on moral perspective when science is out of sync with our observation? <br><br>I mean, Obama promise to ‘put science in its rightful place.’  But, if we do that doesn’t that mean we have to overturn Roe v. Wade?  I mean, I know Roe v. Wade didn’t expressly say that a fetus wasn’t human.  But if it is human-and scientifically it apparently is-then why do the laws concerning born children not apply?  Is it any less constitutional to legally require a woman to carry a child for 8-9 months than it is to force a parent to labor for eighteen years to provide for a born child?  <br><br>Thank you for you time.  
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>Let's agree that, from the moment of conception, we have a living thing -- and, if the parents are human, this living thing belongs to no other species than <em>homo sapiens</em>. So what? That fact doesn't in itself determine the moral status of the product of conception.</p><p>Here's one possible view:  as the human zygote/embryo/foetus develops, its death becomes a more serious matter. At the very beginning, its death is of little consequence; as time goes on its death is a matter it becomes appropriate to be more concerned about.</p><p>In fact, that view seems to be exactly the one most of us take about the <em>natural</em> death of human zygotes/embryos/foetuses. After all, few of us are worried by the fact that a high proportion of conceptions spontaneously abort: few of us are scandalized if a woman who finds she is pregnant by mistake in a test  one week after conception is pleased when she discovers that the pregnancy has naturally terminated a few days later. Similarly for accidental death: suppose a woman finds she is a week pregnant, goes cross-country horse riding, falls badly at a jump, and spontaneously aborts. That might be regrettable, but we wouldn't  think she'd  done something terrible by going riding and running the risk. (Compare: we do think it is a matter for moral concern that  there are high levels of infant mortality in some countries; we would be  scandalized by a woman celebrating the death of an unwanted newborn baby: we would be appalled at someone risking the life of nearly nine-months old foetus by going in for some potentially dangerous sports.)</p><p>So: our attitudes to the <em>natural</em> or <em>accidental</em> death of the products of conception seem to suggest that we regard them as of relatively lowly moral status at the beginning of their lives, and of greater moral standing as time passes. It would be consistent with such a view to take a similar line about <em>unnatural</em> deaths. For example,  it would be consistent with that to think that using the morning-after pill is of no moral significance, while bringing about the death of an eight month foetus is getting on for as serious as killing a neonate, with a gradual increase in the seriousness of the killing in between.<br /></p><p>Now, the point I'm making here isn't that this "gradualist" view is <em>right</em> (actually, I think it is, but you don't have to agree for present purposes). The point is that it that it isn't obvious that it is <em>wrong</em>. In other words, it isn't obvious that an all-or-nothing attitude to members of the species homo sapiens has to be right. It is not obvious that agreeing that the products of human conceptions are also human means that we should assign them all the moral weight we give to developed human beings. There's room for argument.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 18 Apr 2009 16:11:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2660</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I've noticed that most comments on abortion ignore the question of foetal conciousness and the stage at which the foetus becomes sensitive to pain, and is susceptible to suffering in the course of the abortion procedure. The gradualist approach (the foetus has few rights in early pregnancy but more rights at later stages) is attractive but suffers from the drawback that it does not provide a definite point in gestation at which personhood can be considered to start. Would it be reasonable to think of the onset of foetal consciousness as providing such a starting point? (I know there are immense practical difficulties in identifying the onset of consciousness but I am looking at this question as a matter of principle.)
 <br /><br />
Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote><p>The idea of giving rights to fetuses as soon as they are capable of consciousness is, I think, discussed in the literature.  Fetuses have a functioning central nervous system very early in pregnancy (typically before pregnancy is detected) and possibly consciousness of some sort starts at this point.  Probably you should also be willing to extend your ideas about the importance of consciousness to human rights later in life (e.g. to comatose patients).</p>  <p>Some writers on abortion argue that fetuses have rights to life before the onset of consciousness, and perhaps you might be interested at looking at these e.g. Don Marquis.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 06 Mar 2009 14:45:05 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2596</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why do so many people feel that abortion is not a major issue?  Regardless of what end of the field you stand on, you’re either defending human rights or you’re defending human life, based on your perspective.  Both of these things are clearly important issues so why do so many people attempt to devalue the controversy of abortion? <br><br>
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>I wonder what you mean when you say that "many people attempt to devalue the controversy "?</p><p>I suppose that it is true that a lot of people are not at all tempted by either "end of the field" -- if that means holding at one end that abortion is tantamount to murder, or holding at the other end that even very late abortions are morally insignificant. Many people think that the moral status of an zygote/embryo/foetus increases as time goes by -- the natural or unnatural death of the immediate product of conception is of little or no  consequence, the natural or unnatural death of a foetus near term a matter of very serious concern, with a sliding scale in between. If  you take this "gradualist"  view -- a rather attractive one, I think -- the loud controversy  between  extremists at either end will indeed seem wrongheaded: it's not that the gradualist ignores the controversy, or merely ducks out from taking sides, rather she thinks that there is a third option. </p><p>I've written <a target="_blank" href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2107">a bit more about that kind of gradualism</a> in answer to an earlier question here.<br /></p><p><br /> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Mon, 09 Feb 2009 11:00:13 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2553</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why do so many people on the pro-choice end of the abortion argument insist that life does not begin until after birth and that a fetus is not a human?  I mean, you can say that an embryo is not a human because it has no cognitive abilities.  You can use science to show that it has no cognitive abilities too, but you cannot use science to prove that cognitive abilities are the defining attribute of a person.<br><br>As a matter of fact, don’t scientists identify organisms as members of their respective species based on their unique genetic signature? Human beings have a genetic signature of their own.  Every human has it and no other species shares it with us.  So, scientifically the fetus is a human, it’s only when we put religious sentiment into the mix that we can define it as anything else than a member of our species.<br><br>The life argument is more effective except that biologically there’s no significance to the instant of birth.  It’s culturally significant but is there any real transformation in the 32-week old fetus as it slides into the hospital?    <br>
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>If someone says of a (human) foetus that it is not human, then presumably they are not making a <em>biological</em> remark. They are not foolishly assigning it to the wrong species!</p><p>Rather, they are expressing -- not in a very happy way -- a <em>moral</em> view. The claim is that a foetus. at least at sufficiently early stages in its development, doesn't have the same moral status as a developed human being (a fully-fledged person).<br /> </p><p>Now, given the gradual biological development, it would -- as the question implies -- seem intolerable to suppose that there is, somewhere along the line between conception and birth and beyond, a point where there is a sudden jump from having no moral standing to having the standing of a full person. The natural view is that there is a corresponding increase in moral standing as you go along. And indeed, that seems to be what almost everyone actually thinks when considering the <em>natural </em>death of embryos and foetuses. A high percentage of conceptions (over 25%) result in very early natural terminations: we don't, in practice, think of that as a moral scandal as we might regard a similar level of neo-natal death. We don't think of a woman's rejoicing when an unwanted pregnancy naturally comes to an end after a couple of weeks as being on a par with a woman celebrating the death of an unwanted baby. The fundamental "pro-choice" thought is that we should think of the seriousness of bringing about the death of embryos and foetuses in proportion to the seriousness with which we do in fact mostly regard natural deaths of such things -- i.e. not very serious (so not on a par with the killing of a developed person) at the very outset, more serious as time progresses. But putting that thought in slogan form, and saying that foetuses aren't human, would -- I agree -- be misleading, to say the least.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Mon, 09 Feb 2009 10:19:06 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2551</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Richard Heck responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is it rational to both maintain that abortion is entirely morally permissible (on the grounds that a fetus is not a person, let's say) and to regret having had one? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Richard Heck<br />

<blockquote><p>And for yet another persepctive on this, it seems as if it is morally permissible not always to be a "good samaritan". But of course one might reasonably regret not having been a "good samaritan" on some particular occasion, i.e., regret not having gone out of one's way---beyond the call of moral duty---to do something for someone. It therefore seems perfectly reasonable, in general, to regret things one had, and knows one had, every moral permission to do.<br /> </p><p>A cognate point is made explicitly in Judith Jarvis Thomson's classic paper, "A Defense of Abortion". To say that something is morally permissible is simply to say that it isn't morally prohibited: It's a fairly weak claim in some ways. In particular, it doesn't at all follow that the thing in question is, all things considered, the best thing to do, nor even that it is, all things considered, a particularly nice thing to do. So, if I remember correctly, Thomson says she is quite willing to concede, so far as her argument is concerned, that it might always be the <em>nice</em> thing to do not to have an abortion. That, however, is not what is at issue.<br /></p><p>That morality leaves a good deal open is so intuitive that utilitarianism's failure to leave a good deal open, in this sense, is often considered one of the more serious objections to it.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 28 Jan 2009 15:08:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2531</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Jean Kazez responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is it rational to both maintain that abortion is entirely morally permissible (on the grounds that a fetus is not a person, let's say) and to regret having had one? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Jean Kazez<br />

<blockquote>That set of attitudes wouldn't be irrational at all for a woman who discovers herself infertile or wanting to have had more children some time after the abortion.  Even if a fetus is not a person, and it's entirely permissible to have an abortion, it's obviously true that fetuses eventually turn into persons.  So an entirely permissible abortion can later on seem to have been a mistake.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 28 Jan 2009 15:08:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2531</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is it rational to both maintain that abortion is entirely morally permissible (on the grounds that a fetus is not a person, let's say) and to regret having had one? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>There's no obvious inconsistency. The fact that something is morally permissible doesn't mean that there's never any reason to regret having done it. To take a very different sort of example: suppose I'm very busy, and I pass up an opportunity to go on a trip to some intriguing place, deciding instead to stick to my work. I might end up regretting my decision, even though it wasn't wrong of me to decide as I did. I might come to think I missed out on a valuable opportunity and that it would have been worth rearranging my work for the sake of it.</p><p>Perhaps this doesn't quite get at your worry. Perhaps what you have in mind is someone who thinks that abortion is morally permissible, but who come to have <em>moral</em> regrets about having had one.  That sounds more like some sort of inconsistency, but it needn't be. If the thought is "It was morally permissible for me to do this, but it was wrong of me to do it," then perhaps we have an inconsistency. But it's possible to think that something is permissible in general, and yet to think that given one's own situation, the morally better thing for oneself would have been to decide differently. In other words, questions about what's permissible in general may not be fine-grained enough to decide what's best in one's own particular moral circumstances.<br /></p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 28 Jan 2009 15:08:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2531</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ The moral question of whether abortion is wrong is whether or not it is a person.  Well, I don't understand why people say that a fetus is not a person.  How are a fetus and an infant any different.  An infant doesn't understand the future just the way a fetus doesn't.  At 14 weeks a fetus begins to move and "explore" the womb and itself.  That shows some curiosity and some sort of "thinking".  On a genetic level or the form of the fetus also at 14 weeks it is "a person".  So then at the very least shouldn't abortion be illegal after that?  If we should not kill an infant, which is very illegal, why can we kill a fetus which in many instances is on the same level as the infant?  If anything we should not kill the fetus because it is innocent and the infant is not. An infant cries just to be held where it should cry because it needs something. Just as a small example.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote>There is more relevant discussion in response to <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2107" target="_blank">Question 2107</a>, where I remark on the moral differences between early fetuses and newborn infants that we seem to make in our thinking about the natural or accidental death of fetuses as against babies.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 04 Dec 2008 15:11:48 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2453</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Abortion - Sally Haslanger responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ The moral question of whether abortion is wrong is whether or not it is a person.  Well, I don't understand why people say that a fetus is not a person.  How are a fetus and an infant any different.  An infant doesn't understand the future just the way a fetus doesn't.  At 14 weeks a fetus begins to move and "explore" the womb and itself.  That shows some curiosity and some sort of "thinking".  On a genetic level or the form of the fetus also at 14 weeks it is "a person".  So then at the very least shouldn't abortion be illegal after that?  If we should not kill an infant, which is very illegal, why can we kill a fetus which in many instances is on the same level as the infant?  If anything we should not kill the fetus because it is innocent and the infant is not. An infant cries just to be held where it should cry because it needs something. Just as a small example.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Sally Haslanger<br />

<blockquote><p>In addition to Allen's points, it should be noted that not everyone agrees that the issue of abortion boils down to the issue of whether the fetus is a person.  Judith Thomson has famously argued that other persons do not have a right to use my body, even if preventing them from such use would cause their death.   For example, if I had a rare blood type and was taken into custody an hooked up to someone who needed blood of my type, this would be a violation of my rights and I would be permitted to resist, or unplug myself.  Because a fetus is using the pregnant woman's body, sometimes against her will (think of rape especially, but also contraception failure), she does not have a moral obligation to allow such use.  In some cases it would be very kind of me to allow such use, e.g., if it wasn't at great cost to me, but even if we count the fetus as a ful person, it doesn't have a right to such use.<br /></p><p>See: Judith<em></em> Jarvis Thomson<em></em>: A Defense of Abortion<em></em>. <em>Philosophy & Public Affairs</em>, Vol. 1, no. 1 (Fall 1971).<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 04 Dec 2008 15:11:48 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2453</link>
	</item>
</channel>
</rss>