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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Art"</title>
<description>You ask. Philosophers answer.</description>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Environment, Ethics - Jonathan Westphal responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ It has been suggested that the practice of Bonsai is an expression of animal chauvinism and does great harm to a tree by 'stunting' it. But aren't trees not sentient beings, and therefore the excising of branches, shoots and roots such that the tree thrives albeit substantially smaller than its genetic potential, is no different to the continual loss of roots, shoots and branches that occur under natural conditions?
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Response from: Jonathan Westphal<br />

<blockquote>There is the fact that it is possible to treat something badly or to damage it, whether or not it is sentient. A pair of shoes can be badly or well looked after, and it is wrong not to look after  a good pair of shoes properly. A living thing like a hedge can be properly maintained or attended to, but something more is involved. Sometimes, it seems to me, the aesthetics of the "art object" (horrible phrase) can reflect what it actually is. So it is natural to trim a box hedge in one way, and a mixed hedge in another way, perhaps a less formal and more undulating, the shapes reflecting the different kinds of growth - hawthorn, or privet or beech. (A hedge that is full of straggly and unwanted sycamore looks awful, and the holes soon begin to show.) Pugs and poodles may be perfectly happy qua sentient beings, though often there are specific health problems with specific breeds, but it is perfectly coherent to object to the whole process of breeding and thinking of living things as being objects for our use - manipulation - and enjoyment only. Much the same comments can be made about the wilderness, and your question and suggestion raise profound and important questions of ecological ethics and aesthetics. For some, the ethics of GM foods has a spiritual dimension too.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 02 Jul 2009 20:37:38 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2743</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art - William Rapaport responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is baking a form of art? Or is what can be considered art in the eye of the beholder, much like beauty?
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Response from: William Rapaport<br />

<blockquote>I am not a philosopher of art, so I will defer to another panel member who is, but I do remember once visiting a museum in New York City that had an exhibit titled "The Baker's Art", consisting of elegantly decorated cakes and breads.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 24 May 2009 14:56:22 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2707</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art - Douglas Burnham responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Can gardening be considered as an art?  Thank you.
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Response from: Douglas Burnham<br />

<blockquote><meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="CONTENT-TYPE" /><title></title><meta content="OpenOffice.org 3.0  (Win32)" name="GENERATOR" /><style type="text/css">	<!--		@page { margin: 2cm }		P { margin-bottom: 0.21cm }	-->	</style><p style="margin-bottom: 0cm;">Well, Kant for one, seemed to ranklandscape gardening very highly, defining it as in essence a kind ofpainting (see section 51 of the <em>Critique of Judgement</em>).  Thepoint is that such gardening is about form, order, harmony andrelationships  it is, let us say, akin to abstract painting(although of course Kant couldn't have said this). Certainly, also,gardens can have affective and symbolic power, and they participatein a dialogue with their own tradition. Obviously, for everycriterion I come up with, someone could come up with acounter-example that is widely considered art but lacks this feature;so listing criteria is a risky business. Nevertheless, I'm havingtrouble thinking of a defensible reason why gardening should benecessarily excluded from the domain of art  other than the factthat it is not widely considered to be so by the people (artists,gallery owners, critics) whose job it is to tell us what is art. Andthere's the rub. In the absence of relatively stable traditions thatdefine for us what art is, this task has had to be turned over to theindustry.  And, in this arena, gardening doesn't really count indeed, even painting and sculpture as traditionally practised arerarely found. If an already acknowledged artist created a garden asone of their works, then that would be art, but not because of whatit was, but because of the reputation of the person who did it.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 28 Mar 2009 13:56:11 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2617</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Music - Thomas Pogge responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is intention enough for one to get an artistic status? Supose, as a composer, I have a piece called "Sonata for non-prepared pianist". I walk into a theater and pick someone from the audience and give to this person, that lacks musical theory knowledge, some verbal instructions like "play anything with anger. Now imagine you're watching the ocean. Now imagine you are in a hurry..." and I sit him in front of the piano. He will just randomly hit keys and produce noise (or music?) accordingly to the "moods" I gave him. So, he is playing piano, he has intention of playing piano, he is producing sound, he is following instructions. Can we consider him, now, the concert pianist? Is he now an artist?<br><br>Tiago V., Portugal
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Response from: Thomas Pogge<br />

<blockquote>I think we have some pretty good discussion of this question already from earlier Questions <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/729" target="_blank">729</a>, <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1497" target="_blank">1497</a>, <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1806" target="_blank">1806</a>, <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2111" target="_blank">2111</a>. It's a fascinating question certain musicians and artists have raised through their work (just as you imagine), and all the more interesting for there being no compelling way of reaching an answer.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Mon, 12 Jan 2009 00:22:23 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2512</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ If a team of monkeys with typewriters accidentally typed a coherent and beautiful sonnet (one that appeared to be written by a talented author, despite being written by a shiftless monkey), would that qualify as art (or at least worthwhile literature)?
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>If Olla Fritzharold were to give a scat-singing performance whose syllables accidentally added up to something that sounded just like calling one of the audience members a shiftless monkey in his own native language, would that qualify as an insult?</p><p>No. There's nothing like the relevant intention anywhere in the ballpark (or the auditorium.) Art and insults aren't the same thing, but it's part of the conventions that go with what counts as art that typically, at least, there had to be <em>some</em> sort of relevant intention behind the object.</p><p>Of course, this isn't airtight. After all, there's such a thing as "found art," and then there's Duchamp's famous "Fountain," which was a factory-made urinal. But in cases like these, there's a good case for saying that what makes the thing <em>art</em> as opposed to merely an interesting(?) object is the fact that someone who stands in the right relation to the "Artworld" declares it to be art. And so we still have an art-relevant intention.<br /></p><p>The larger point is that "art" isn't a natural kind. (Good thing; artifacts are supposed to stand in contrast to natural kinds.) The fact that there is <em>art</em> as opposed to various objects that provoke certain reactions in us rests on the fact that there is a complicated set of practices, institutions and so on that we call the artworld. The classic statement of this idea is in the work of Arthur Danto. The detailed account is in <em>The Transfiguration of the Commonplace</em>.</p><p>What this means is that there's no natural fact, so to speak, about whether the "sonnet" by your shiftless monkey (I'm assuming he types entirely in lower-case...) is a work of art. Close enough for poetry, it would be a work of art if "the artworld" treated it as such.</p><p>(By the way: I somehow misread your first sentence on first glance, and took it to be asking if a team of <em>donkeys</em> with typewriters might accidentally make a work of art. The answer would be the same, but the donkeys would have a much harder time working the keys.)<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Tue, 18 Nov 2008 17:31:14 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2425</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Value - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ No art exists but what man calls art, and man is partial.<br><br>If this is true, and if it means that art is only valuable to men, and is thus immaterial outside of that context (the Human Context), then what is the true value of art-the objective value? I would presume that it is valueless. Further, if an artist knows this, how can he still appreciate art, knowing it to be esoterically meaningful? *Why* should he continue to appreciate art?<br><br>--Darwin K.<br>
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>Suppose I happen to get great pleasure from something that more or less no one else cares about. Maybe I really enjoy writing poems that avoid using the letter "p." I know that there's no cosmic importance to poems of this sort, and I know that it's just a quirk of my psychology that I enjoy writing them so much. This activity has no "objective" value if that means value from some point of view that doesn't take me into account. But it still has value <em>for me</em>, and as long as I don't spend all my time doing it, there's nothing irrational about my using this odd little hobby as a pleasant pastime. I don't need to be worried about the fact that in the larger scheme of things, "p"-less poems don't count.</p><p>The point is more or less obvious, I hope: if <em>I</em> dont' need to be bothered by the fact that some things have value for me alone, <em>artists </em>don't need to be bothered by the fact that some things have value only for a wider circle of creatures: creatures with the sorts of cognitive and perceptual capacities that go into making and appreciating art. </p><p> But we can say more: it's not clear that <em>anything</em> has any value apart from some sort of relationship to sentient creatures. It may not be a matter of any creature's actual experience, but it may well be that the idea of value part from all possible experience doesn't make any sense. (I'll confess that I can't make a lot of sense of it.)</p><p>Art is something that particular kinds of creatures make and appreciate. It may not just be humans, but suppose it is. Nonetheless, the appreciation of art is a many-layered, complex activity that weaves together various skills, themes and concerns. It's something that humans <em>find meaningful</em>, even if other kinds of creatures don't. </p><p>And so I could work myself into a state of needless anomie because art doesn't have some sort of absolute, human-independent value. Or I could stand in front of the Matisse and revel in the deliciousness of those wonderful forms and colors. Which reminds me: it's been way too long since I've been to the museum. Perhaps later this week...<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Tue, 12 Aug 2008 14:17:43 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2270</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Literature - Jonathan Westphal responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Can literature "tell the truth" better than other Arts or Areas of Knowledge?<br><br>
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Response from: Jonathan Westphal<br />

<blockquote>My answer to this is a firm "Yes". Novels, for example, "tell the<br /><br>truth" better than any other written material, with the exception<br /><br>things like diaries and letters, unless you think of the relevant<br /><br>passages of diaries and letters as though they were mini-novels. But<br /><br>diaries and letters are no better at telling the truth in the<br /><br>appropriate sense than the skills of their authors. What sense is the<br /><br>sense in which novels (or more generally imaginative writing) can "tell<br /><br>the truth" better than any other "Areas of Knowledge", as you call<br /><br>them? (I imagine that you might have the sciences in mind.) The sense<br /><br>is one in which telling the truth has to do with getting the details of<br /><br>a description absolutely right, and getting the overal balance and<br /><br>colour and mood of what one is describing absolutely right. Here<br /><br>psychology for example (which might be thought to give "tell the truth"<br /><br>better than the novel) is no better than the sensibility (the<br /><br>eighteenth and nineteenth century word) of the individual working<br /><br>psychologist. And psychology as a whole can be worse, because its<br /><br>collective or institutional scientific structure blots out the most<br /><br>personal and individual aspects of its subjects' lives. 'What an<br /><br>intelligent man knows is hard to know', as Goethe observed. But I agree<br /><br>with Kalynne Pudner that there is a rich and rewarding philosophical<br /><br>literature that exists exactly on this topic. My philosophical guides in<br /><br>the area, who share the view I have sketched above, are Iris<br /><br>Murdoch and Vladimir Nabokov.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 09 Jul 2008 05:40:41 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2145</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Literature - Kalynne Pudner responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Can literature "tell the truth" better than other Arts or Areas of Knowledge?<br><br>
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Response from: Kalynne Pudner<br />

<blockquote><p>I'm hard pressed to answer this question (and I suspect I'm not the only one, seeing as it's been so long unanswered) without knowing more precisely what you mean by "tell the truth."  A work of literature can be said to have various meanings, some of them mutually exclusive, and few (if any) constraints on viable interpretations.  So in that sense, it would tell the truth, because the range of what it "tells" is so very broad.  But it would be the same with the visual arts, wouldn't it?  </p><p>If "telling the truth" is understood to be some kind of correspondence with an external state of affairs, then it seems other areas of knowledge (mathematics, for instance) would "tell the truth" better.<br /></p><p>Aesthetics isn't my area, and so far I'm only dabbling in Phil of Literature; I'm afraid I can't do better than this for an answer.  But it is an intriguing start to a conversation.  I hope you pursue it.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 09 Jul 2008 05:40:41 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2145</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art - Gabriel Segal responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Hey, A question of art. What can philosophy say about the emergence of the new art forms of the late 20 century? Can a computer programmer in any way be an artist, can a video game be considered art, even when its primary focus is to entertain, can a whole web page be a work of art? <br><br>Thanks by advance
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Response from: Gabriel Segal<br />

<blockquote><p>Well, if by 'the new art forms' you mean such things as video games and web pages, then it looks like you have answered your own questions in the affirmative.  To me  that seems the right answer. </p><p>A video game  could be both art and entertainment, a web page could be both a work of art and a means of communication, just as a building designed by Gaudi could be a work of art and a house. <br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Apr 2008 10:08:16 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2091</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art - Alexander George responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is there a difference of aesthetic value between a genuine piece of art and an indistinguishable fake of it?<br><br>Erez B., Israel
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Response from: Alexander George<br />

<blockquote>Sell also <a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/406" target="_blank">Question 406</a>.<br /></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 21 Dec 2007 07:30:26 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1939</link>
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