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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Death"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Punishment - Mitch Green responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why do we consider the death penalty immoral in a situation where a sadist (a very immoral person) commits heinous crimes and is sentenced to life imprisonment where he is protected from lynch mobs, given access to education, therapy (which has proved not only to be non effective in rehabilitating sadists but frees them from responsibility for their actions), medical care, food, clothing, televison, gym, etc. all at the taxpayers expense and one of his victims (a child) who has survived the trauma and torture inflicted is sentenced to a life of physical and psychological disability, in later life unable to work or pay for his ailments and who lives in constant fear that the sadist will be released and come and get him again?  Is it possible that our reluctance to inflict the death penalty is out of fear but that we simply rationalize this as morality as that is the more palatable excuse.  Are we just moral cowards?  Wouldn't we all be relieved if the sadist suddenly dropped dead of a heart attack?  And if yes, does this not mean that our concern is not about his life which we obviously do not value at all but of our own fear of doing a scary thing, i.e., inflicting the death penalty?
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Response from: Mitch Green<br />

<blockquote><p>Thank you for your message.  I'm not sure exactly what you have in mind when you presuppose, in your first sentence, that "we" consider the death penalty immoral in the situation you describe.  So far as I can tell, at least in the U.S., a good many people consider the death penalty in such a situation moral.  But to continue the line of thought you begin, let's see whether it might be possible to make sense of those people who consider it immoral in that situation.  </p><p> 1.   You're right that the sadist might get a lot of benefits at taxpayer expense.  On the other hand, it's well known that at least given the current difficulty of prosecuting a death penalty case, and all the hurdles that must be got over after that, lifelong incarceration is actually less expensive than the death penalty.  As a result, if your argument rests on the financial considerations, a  life sentence is clearly the best option for such a person.  </p><p>2.  You ask whether reluctance to inflict the death penalty is out of fear, and that all moral argumentation is simply rationalization.  Of course that's possible, but I have no idea how we would go about settling such a question short of subjecting each person offering this moral argumentation to rigorous psychotherapy.  I think  that unless you're able to provide evidence of which I'm not aware, you'd have to agree that there's no current way to know the answer to your question.  Of course that means that we shouldn't accept any suggestion, whether you're making it or not, that moral argumentation really *is* motivated by fear.   The same goes for your rhetorical question whether we are really just moral cowards.  My answer would simply be:  I don't know, do you? <br /></p><p>3. One can be relieved that a dangerous and morally evil person has died, while still valuing his life.  Consider another case:   A very old and ailing relative might finally pass away, and all of those who were caring for her might find her passing a relief, both because it relieved her suffering and lessened their burden.  But I think they would be offended, and rightly so, by someone suggesting that they didn't value her life.  Of course they did; it is just that their valuing it didn't mean they wanted it to go on forever no matter its quality.  So too, just because I might be relieved that the sadist is dead, doesn't mean that I don't value his life.  More generally, many people will say that a person's life has value no matter how evil they are or have been.  I'm not saying that those people are definitely correct, but when you describe the sadist's life as one "we obviously do not value at all," I would suggest that view is not obvious; many reasonable people will even deny it.  </p><p>So I hope you'll consider whether the issues here might be more complex than your question suggests.  I should stress that I would share all the repugnance and horror at the sadist that you do; as would most everyone else.  I am only stressing, in my reply, that those who would refrain from inflicting the death penalty in such a case might have more to be said on their behalf than you perhaps envision.  </p><p>Mitch Green <br /></p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 28 Nov 2009 21:45:55 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2978</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death - Amy Kind responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is death without afterlife really all that bad? I mean, it could be worse, right? Of the plethora of possibilities the human mind can imagine, quiet, peaceful oblivion seems to me like not such a terrible thing.
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Response from: Amy Kind<br />

<blockquote><p>I'm not sure that it's right to describe death without afterlife as "quiet peaceful oblivion."  If there is no afterlife, and you cease to exist at death, then there is no <em>you</em> to experience the peace and quiet.  If you've ceased to exist, then you have no experiences at all.  It's precisely for this reason that philosophers like Epicurus claim that we should not fear death; on his view, all good and evil consists in sensation, and death is the absence of sensation.  So, says Epicurus, "death, the most terrifying of ills, is nothing ot us, since so long as we exist, death is ot with us; but when death comes, then we do not exist."</p>  <p>In short, if you're looking for a quiet, peaceful oblivion, I don't think death is the right place to look...</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 29 Oct 2009 13:13:59 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2935</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is death without afterlife really all that bad? I mean, it could be worse, right? Of the plethora of possibilities the human mind can imagine, quiet, peaceful oblivion seems to me like not such a terrible thing.
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote>It may be to you but to a lot of people they would prefer a life of discomfort to no life at all. It is difficult to know how to judge the rationality of such attitudes, and is perhaps more an issue for the psychologist than the philosopher.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 29 Oct 2009 13:13:59 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2935</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Ethics - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Do the dead have rights?<br><br>Example: suppose my father dies and leaves me his house in his will, on the condition that I never sell the house to anyone outside the family. If I were to take the house, and later sell it to someone outside that family, it is not clear that my father is harmed (he is dead!). Yet it seems wrong. Why?
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote><p>Of course, you might think that although his body is dead, his soul lives on somewhere and would be horrified at what you did and so would be harmed. Otherwise, I suppose it would be relevant to ask whether you had agreed to his demand, since if you did and then reneged on it, you would be at fault. Let us suppose this is not the case. It does seem to me to be possible to harm a dead person, not directly perhaps, but in the sense that you dishonour their memory by going against their wishes. </p>  <p>Even on utilitarian grounds this might be problematic, since it might create generally a disinclination for people to trust their descendants to uphold their wishes, and so might discourage passing property from one generation to another. The father could use the value of the house while he was alive and then it passes to the institution that financed him on his death. Not that there is anything wrong with this, but he would not in his last years have the feeling that his property would remain in the family, which he apparently regards as an important thing.  If one thinks that familial relationships of the traditional kind are worth preserving, then there are problems in going against the (acceptable) wishes of the dead.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Sep 2009 13:18:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2850</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Ethics - Eric Silverman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ We all wish that we die before a person we love a LOT (our parents is an example), because we think that we'll be very sad and cry all the time.<br><br>But, isn't it more moral to wish that this beloved person dies before us, so we would support the extreme sadness and not them ?
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Response from: Eric Silverman<br />

<blockquote><p>I disagree with one of your stated assumptions and one of your implied assumptions. First, I certainly don't want to die before many of the beloved people around me (and I insist that I still love them quite a bit). However, I disagree with this stated assumption, because I disagree with your implicit assumption that when we should wish to die ought to be motivated mainly by a desire for self or others to avoid the sadness of grieving. It seems to me that we should be more motivated by a desire to avoid (and for others to avoid) the 'bad' of death. </p>  <p>I would prefer not to die at all but since that doesn't seem to be an option, it seems wisest to accept the natural pattern of this world: to die after your beloved parents, before your children and grandchildren, and in roughly the same time span as siblings, friends, and spouses.  It is also easier to accept mortality (your own and others) if you don't think this is the end, as many excellent philosophers such as Plato, Aquinas, Kant, and Kierkegaard have believed. </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Sep 2009 09:20:09 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2855</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Ethics, Sex - Thomas Pogge responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is, say, necrophilia ethically wrong?  Arguably the ultimate societal taboo, necrophilia is something which the vast majority of people -- myself included -- consider disturbing and repulsive.  It seems, however, that if we deem it morally objectionable we are left in a precarious situation, as we are forced to acknowledge that certain sexual behaviors without victims are wrong in and of themselves.  If we accept this fact, what's to stop a person from deeming gay marriage wrong on the same grounds?  Where could we possibly draw the line?<br><br>Having read some of the responses posted on this site, I have recently accepted the position that a person can be harmed even after their death.  So, when I am speaking of necrophilia here, let's assume the person gave their consent before dying.
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Response from: Thomas Pogge<br />

<blockquote><p>We might think of this on three levels. First, is it permissible for a liberal state to outlaw necrophilia? The argument for an affirmative answer could appeal to various public health reasons as well as to the fact that this practice may give considerable offense to others even while the cost of abstention is relatively small and borne only by a few. This argument might run roughly parallel to that justifying the permissibility of outlawing nudity or defecation in public places. The case of gay relationships is substantially different for two reasons: the cost to gay people of not having the opportunity of a romantically fulfilling and socially recognized relationship is enormous and, with roughly three percent of all people being gay, the number of people who would be (and have been) bearing this cost is substantial.</p>  <p>Second, is there something ethically wrong with practicing necrophelia? Taking ethics in the broad sense, its concern is the good life for human beings. A good life centrally involves close personal ties, friendships, and romantic relationships with people who we regard as our equals and with whom we engage in a wide range of communicative interactions. Compared to such interactions, necrophilia is an inferior activity, a waste of time. But so are many video games and TV shows. And it's surely not a serious failing for people to take a little time out here and there for something dull or silly. </p>  <p>Third, is it more narrowly morally wrong to practice necrophelia, would doing so wrong other people? Setting aside the wrong one might do to others by endangering public health and/or by violating the laws of our common legal system, and assuming the free and informed prior consent of the person now deceased, it is hard to see who might be wronged if the act is performed in a private setting.</p>  <p>I agree then with what you are suggesting: the strength of our reaction to necrophelia cannot be explained by reference to our modern moral-ethical thinking. It is presumably related to religious commitments, aesthetic tastes, and even biological responses.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 23 May 2009 16:52:00 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2678</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Suicide - Eddy Nahmias responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ This question is about suicide/death. Is it even possible to hold a preference between the alternatives of life and death, assuming materialism is true? When a person dies, his or her brain shuts down, hence their consciousness ceases (from everything we know). It seems impossible therefore to properly conceive of what it is like to be dead. Isn't it therefore illogical to state "I would rather be dead"?
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Response from: Eddy Nahmias<br />

<blockquote><p>Your question makes me wonder how many people who commit suicide do so with the belief (1) that their consciousness will cease (their identity will end) and how many do so with the belief (2) that their consciousness (and identity) will continue but in a better existence (e.g., heaven).  Though this seems like an impossible survey to do (no way to ask the dead!), we could ask people who survive attempted suicides what their goal was (or if they had a goal at all).  Perhaps the research has been done.  For some reason, I've always assumed that most people who commit suicide (other than terrorists) do so with belief 1 rather than belief 2.  And  some people may <em>avoid </em>suicide even in the face of despair because they have the belief (3) that their consciousness will continue in a <em>worse </em>existence (e.g., hell), as Hamlet reminds us: "the dread of something after death,                          The undiscovered country." </p><p>Of course, it would not be illogical to say "I would rather be dead" if one believed (2), that dying tranports them to a better world (and "I would rather <em>not </em>be dead" obviously makes sense for someone who believees 3).  So, the question is whether it makes sense for someone who believes 1, that his or her consciousness will cease with the death of the body, to say it.  </p><p>First of all, I don't think it is right to say it is impossible to <em>conceive </em>what it is like to be dead.  On this view, there is <em>nothing </em>it is like to be dead.  And it seems we can <em>conceive</em> of that--it's presumably the (lack of) mental state we undergo in dreamless sleep (or under anesthesia).  We can conceive of it; we just can't experience it consciously.  </p><p>Now, does this impossibility mean that it is illogical to say "I'd rather be dead"?  It doesn't seem so to me.  One might mean, "What I consciously experience is so miserable that it would be better for my consciousness to cease."  (I hope anyone who feels that way would seek help from friends, family, professionals, and help-lines before he or she believed it to be true, especially since miserable experiences can often give way to much better experiences with time.)  If I say that, I am not saying that <em>I</em> will be better off (that things will be better <em>for me</em>) when I lack consciousness, since I will no longer exist.  Rather, I am saying that <em>things </em>will be better when I lack consciousness and no longer exist.  (It's easy to see how there could be utilitarian arguments for suicide.)</p><p>Another way to see the point is to recognize that we have current preferences for states of affairs that we know will exist only after we are dead.  For instance, I prefer there to be a viable environment for my great-grandchildren.  And I am willing to give up satisfying some of my preferences for my current self to satisfy that preference (though we really are not built to do so and it's hard to get ourselves to do it!).  I also put away some of the money I could spend on stuff for me to purchase life insurance, which I know would only be useful if I were dead.  I prefer that my family have that money even though I believe that I won't experience them using it.  Similarly, it seems one could prefer to have no experiences at all to having bad experiences, even though one believes that he or she would not <em>experience </em>having no experiences.<br /> </p><p></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 05 Jun 2008 12:51:12 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2184</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death, Love - Kalynne Pudner responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ When, for example, a man has his heart broken by a woman he loves, why does it sometimes feel like a mini death?  Is there perhaps some sort of a parallel between breaking up and dying, between the end of a relationship and the end of life?
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Response from: Kalynne Pudner<br />

<blockquote><p>Sure, I think there's a parallel, particularly if you consider that a person is not an isolated, self-contained entity, but rather a being-in-relation.  Your identity is defined partly by your relationships with particular others, and the more intimate the relationship, the more it contributes to your identity.  Intimacy is a matter of sharing first-person perspectives (what the world looks like from your eyes is shared with your intimate, and what the world looks like from hers is shared with you) as well as plans, goals, projects, etc.  In fact, in a truly intimate relationship, you'll adopt the plans, goals, projects, etc. of your intimate as your own. </p><p> When the relationship ends, especially if it is ended unilaterally, all of this that had been part of you is to some extent alienated, which would suggest that your identity is changed.  The person you were, in intimate relation with that particular other, doesn't exist anymore.  So it is, in an analogous sense, a death.  But it's not as complete or final as death, because you can -- and likely will -- enter into other intimate relationships which will make their own unique contributions to your identity.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 11 Apr 2008 10:58:47 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2040</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I am a student at Lafayette College and last weekend, we celebrated Marquis de Lafayette's  250th birthday. Is such a celebration valuable to Marquis himself, even when he is dead? Since we are all going to die, should we all try to make an effort to be remembered by future generations? To whom is that valuable? <br><br>Thank you.
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Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>My hometown is Bethlehem, <span class="caps">PA, </span>and I spent plenty of time around Lafayette and downtown Easton growing up, so I had to respond to this.  I hope things are well there with you.  <br><br>I agree with my colleague Amy Kind that people can harmed (or benefited) even if they're unaware of it, and so in a sense even the dead can be harmed (or benefited).  A colleague of mine used to speak of harm in terms not of experience but interests, and one of the the interests that some people have might be described as a narrative interest--that is, an interest in the story of their life.  Most of us, I think, have an interest in our reputations.  Some of us maintain an interest in producing a reputation that endures after we've died.  Such an interest might, I think, be something not terribly admirable--a product of vanity and excessive pride or ambition.  But an interest in an enduring reputation might be morally virtuous to the extent it, say, sustains a family name or enhances the reputation of a good institution (perhaps a college or a nation) to which one was connected.  So, celebrating the Marquis's memory not only in a strange way benefits him.  It also benefits France, the United States, his descendants, etc. (But, of course, harm and benefit aren't exactly the terms you used.  As to whether or not the celebration is "valuable" to him, I'd have to say that strictly speaking it's not.)<br><br>Now, should we all try to be remembered by future generations?  Generally, no.  Having a famous ancestor is a good thing for many people and institutions, but hardly necessary.  Institutions are for the most part fully well capable of flourishing whether or not any famous dead people are connected to them.<br><br>Having said that, it is nevertheless, important to recognize this: regardless of whether it benefits the Marquis to celebrate him, it's a good thing <em>for us</em> to remember past people who have made valuable contributions to our present condition.  I might go so far, in fact, to say that the cultivation of an historical memory of this sort is a key ingredient of to civilization.  There are lots of reasons for celebratory historical memory being a good thing for us.  The dead often present useful role models, they serve as better reminders of important principles and values than abstract ideas, they can inspire and motivate us, and remember them contributes to a sense of self-worth and identity.<br><br>So, don't be concerned very much with being remembered and celebrated yourself, but do turn to the past and dig up someone to remember and to celebrate.<br><br>And Go Leopards!</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 07 Mar 2008 02:20:07 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1805</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Death - Cheryl Chen responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ What is the definition of Death? 
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Response from: Cheryl Chen<br />

<blockquote>You can find an interesting discussion of the definition of 'death' in Peter Singer's "Rethinking Life and Death."  There is a helpful discussion in the first chapter about "The Ad Hoc Committee of the Harvard Medical School to Examine the Definition of Brain Death."  This committee proposed in 1968 to "redefine" death so that a person who has suffered irreversible loss of all brain function counts as dead, even if the person is still breathing with the help of a respirator.  While this proposal met with little resistance, people are much less inclined to say that someone in a persistent vegetative state is dead--even if there is an irreversible loss of consciousness.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 06 Mar 2008 12:57:25 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2030</link>
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