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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Feminism"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism - Sally Haslanger responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ A state legislator recently came to the local high school recently.  Naturally, teenage boys and girls tend to be convinced that the world is out to get their gender exclusively.  One of the boys asked why it was okay for the insurance company to charge him three times as much as they charged his sister for car insurance.  Apparently she’s a reckless driver and he’s a shut-in who hardly uses his car.  The legislator said that it was a double standard but that there was no gain in attacking it.  Instead of lowering the price for men the insurance company would simply raise the price for women and then nobody would benefit.  <br><br>Is this justification for what the legislator allowed as generalizing, stereotyping, and straight sexism acceptable in a modern society?  What about the feminist movement?  Is it possible that instead of placing new value in women it’s simply devaluing men?  If so is it acceptable?  Should we try a new more idealistic approach to equality? <br>
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Response from: Sally Haslanger<br />

<blockquote><p>It seems to me that the legislator is misrepresenting the argument for charging young men more than young women.  The argument is that insurance companies calculate risks based on statistics they gather about groups.  Even though the brother and sister are exceptions to the generalizations, the generalizations about dangerous driving are statistically sound, and when calculating risks it is reasonable to rely on generalizations.  You are unlucky if you are an outlier in your group, but the existence of an outlier doesn't make it wrong for the insurance companies to use the best statistics they can gather.  Whether or not you agree with the conclusion about relying on generalizations, the point isn't about gender at all.  It's about how to calculate risk and whether insurance companies should be entitled to charge individuals more if they are in a high-risk group.  If we assume that insurance companies are permissible, then I can't see how they can not rely on generaliations, since they wouldn't be able to function otherwise.  As far as I can see it, there is no double standard, stereotyping, or sexism here and the legislator is misguided.</p><p>On the latter set of questions you raise, it is a common complaint against feminism that it simply reverses the historical devaluation of women and instead values women at the expense of men.  I see no evidence of this in the example or in the broader feminist movement.  If you think it is true, then it would be interesting to discuss a different case.<br /> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 20 Mar 2009 14:48:30 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2609</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Children, Ethics, Feminism - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Mary Warnock says we have a right to have children. It's a question I asked myself in the waiting room of a fertility clinic as I was registering for IVF treatment - it's a question I continuing asking myself as I see more and more gay fathers flying off to exotic lands for their offspring through surrogacy. How can we conciliate the right to have children with the exploitation of women?<br><br>Best regards<br>Pensiero<br>Rome, Italy
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Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote><p>The right to pursue certain goods (such as having children, or making money) does not justify using immoral means (such as exploiting women, or stealing) and does not entitle one to success (being a parent, or being rich).  There are many ways to try to become a parent (or a wealthy person), some legal and some illegal, some moral and some immoral. </p>  <p>Perhaps you think that the right to have children is more of a right than the right to make money?  (Like, for example, basic rights for food, shelter, education or health care.)    Even if it was a universal human right to become a parent (which I doubt), it would not follow that there are universal human rights to be a parent by any particular means (such as IVF, surrogacy, adoption etc.)</p>  <p>There are many ways to become a parent, and as those in the adoption community often say, "second choice does not equal second best."  I wish you the best.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 25 Dec 2008 17:33:38 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2484</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism, Gender, Language - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I have a question concerning the gender of words that exist in many languages, except in English.<br><br>What does the presence of grammatical gender in a language say about the mentality of its speakers?  A different question is whether the features of a language reflect the characteristics of the societies where it's spoken in a largely unconscious and involuntary way.<br><br>(Modern) Persian, spoken in Iran and Afghanistan, doesn't have the feature of grammatical gender (anymore), just as English.<br><br>Many say that the languages that do have grammatical genders  are sexist, and that they help to perpetuate the conviction that sex is a tremendously important matter in all areas.<br><br>For Marilyn Frye, this is a key factor in perpetuating male dominance: male dominance requires the belief that men and women are importantly different from each other, so anything that contributes to the impression that sex differences are important is therefore a contributor to male dominance.<br><br>Societies whose languages do not have grammatical genders are no less sexist than the others that do have grammatical genders.<br><br>Have many languages marginalized women more than the English language?  Why can't we gender-neutralize words?  Does sexist language matter?<br><br>Thanks.
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>You've several questions, though they're closely related. Let me start with the first one: "What does the presence of grammatical gender in a language say about the mentality of its speakers?" My answer is: "Darned if I know!" But I rather suspect that most of my co-panelists are in the same position. Whether the presence of grammatical gender in a language has an effect on the outlook of people who speak it is something we could only figure out by bringing to bear the reseources of disciplines like sociology, psychology, sociolinguistics and who knows what else. It would also call for refining the question itself to the point where we knew what counts as an answer. As you yourself observe, it's not exactly obvious that societies whose languages don't mark gender are less sexist than their grammatically gendered counterparts. If there is an effect here, one suspects that it's a subtle one, and not easy to tease out. </p><p>It may well be that if the people in a society believe that men and women are "importantly" different from one another, male dominance will be the typical consequence. But whether grammatical markers like "le" vs. "la" reinforce such beliefs is a lot harder to say. It would be hard to argue that <em>sexist</em> language doesn't matter (just as it would be hard to argue that racist language doesn't matter.) But the mere fact that a language sorts nouns into "masculine" and "feminine" may be quite another matter. In any case, the important thing to keep in mind is that the issues here really are empirical; speculation won't provide reliable answers. </p><p> </p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 21 Aug 2008 11:04:58 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2272</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Ethics, Feminism, Love - Jyl Gentzler responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I married from back home because of certain cultural pressures.  He seemed like an all around nice guy but when he got here he changed.  He admitted that he had put on a show in order to convince me to bring him here and now he is trying to control me.  He also always fights with me over money matters.  At the moment we are separated but not divorced and I am contemplating whether or not I should divorce him.  He does not leave me alone but constantly hurts me and thinks I am cheating on him.  I also caught him trying to start affairs with women both abroad and local and I feel I cannot trust him.  When he came here I liked him but now I feel little to nothing towards him and I think he wants to use me for some end (hence why he wants to get back). Also he frequently hints that it's good to use women for money and etc., and then dump them for other women... Although this may not be the right place to ask such a question but what do you philosophers think of the situation?   I think it would be interesting to have a philosopher's outlook on things (even though i have only given you a brief description of what is going on!).<br> <br>Thanks. 
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Response from: Jyl Gentzler<br />

<blockquote><p>Leave him.  He's a creep.</p>  <p>Let me explain.  From your description of him, your husband seems to regard and treat you as a mere object for his own satisfaction, and his satisfaction consists largely in giving you pain. If this is accurate, then it seems to me that you are under no obligation to continue to tolerate his company. </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Apr 2008 09:54:11 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2081</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Education, Feminism - Thomas Pogge responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Hi, here comes another question about feminism and philosophy and feminist philosophers.<br><br>I am 30 years old and was a student of philosophy in Germany for 6 years before graduating to Master of Arts. Recently I read a book about 19th century's feminists and stumbled over a small notice concerning John St. Mill's "Subjection of Women". Although I would describe myself as a quite diligent student of philosophy (even in high-school) and also very interested in feminist topics, I never knew about this well known philosopher being a feminist as well.<br><br>Now I ask myself three questions and hope you can help:<br><br>1) How can it be explained that even at university level the discussion of a classic philosopher like Mill never touches the bad F-word (i.e., feminism)? And who is to blame? <br><br>2) If even students of philosophy do not touch these topics if not accidentally altough it should be their genuine field of activity, how will other people, to whom the matter is quite distant, ever find out?<br><br>3) How many other important thinkers have written to this topic and I never found out?<br><br>Thanks for your opinions.<br>
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Response from: Thomas Pogge<br />

<blockquote><p>Your experience may be more reflective of philosophy in Germany than of philosophy more generally. There are at least three relevant factors. German students specialize early while students in the US, say, take a broad range of courses in diverse fields during their undergraduate studies. In particular, they take broad (often mandatory) Western civilization courses that focus on philosophical materials that (i) integrate well with non-philosophical materials produced at or around the same time and (ii) are attractive and helpful to students through their relevance to present society. This relates to the second point, that universities in the US tend to reward (often quite directly) teachers and departments for attracting students; and it's rather easier to attract undergraduates to feminist themes than to, say, the philosophy of language.  All this in turn reinforces the third point that German academic philosophy tends to be a bit narrow and conservative. </p><p>While feminism certainly has a presence in US universities, it tends to be segregated. We have women's studies departments, for instance, and the occasional philosophy course on feminism. Yet gender issues are still not well integrated into courses on moral and political philosophy, professional ethics, and the like. And likewise for philosophical publications. There are some very good feminist writings, but virtually all the major books on moral and political philosophy, professional ethics, and the like ignore the very interesting issues raised by the systematically differential life chances women and men have in virtually all existing societies. </p><p>For an accessible discussion of who else has written on this topic, I would recommend Susan Okin's books <em>Women in Western Political Thought</em> and <em>Justice, Gender, and the Family</em>. The former deals with some older, the latter with some more recent treatments of the subject (both feminist and anti-feminist). You can probably also find out a great deal through the internet. One easy way to start is with the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy <a href="http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/feminism-topics/">(plato.stanford.edu/entries/feminism-topics/</a> with various subentries). But I also found a lot of interesting stuff through a google search for (jointly) feminism and philosophy.<br /></p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Jan 2008 07:42:02 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1954</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism - Louise Antony responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Do you believe that the future of feminism lies in downplaying our differences instead of "celebrating" and emphasizing them? It seems to me that bar physical differences, male and female gender roles are largely social constructs, and the marginalization of women is as much due to their own awareness of their "difference" compared with men.<br>A major example of this is the fact that we have a Minister for Women in this country. Is that not basically admitting that to be female is to deviate from a normative male standard, and that issues concerning therefore requires special attention? That is tantamount to admitting, accepting or condoning the fact that female interest is not present in all the affairs dealt with by other ministers (Finance, Health, Education), and it seems a contradiction in terms. It's more than positive discrimination - it's willful marginalization. On the part of women, obviously. It seems by seeking to put ourselves on an equal level with men we have overshot and are now seeking to separate ourselves even more.<br><br>Shouldn't the aim be to participate equally in all facets of life? I accept that there are still problems concerning gender equality in Britain, such as the glass ceiling, but I believe that has more to do with women wanting to have children as well as have a career, in which case they would be the first to admit that they cannot compete for the top jobs. Women now ave the possibility to value their careers over their families and can choose not to have children at all.<br><br>Basically my question is why feminists seem to want to actively take men's superiority from them instead of accepting that we are essentially the same and should co-exist as such?
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Response from: Louise Antony<br />

<blockquote><p>I have a slightly different reaction to your question that Prof. Fosl does.  The version of feminism that I subscribe to says that sexism consists in the <em>existence</em> of gender roles -- that is, in the social construction of categories of persons founded on differences in reproductive physiology or morphology.  I envision a world in which (as Richard Wasserstrom puts it) there is no <em>social</em> significance assigned to biological sex.  Gender categories, because they cover so many facets of life -- intellectual interests, modes of dress, choice of career, aesthetic preferences -- serve to regiment human difference.   So if you know that someone likes big trucks and is the CEO of a Fortune 500 company, you can predict that that person's favorite movie is not <em>Steel Magnolias</em>.  In a world without gender, human differences would be much less systematic -- people would thus be <em>more</em> different from each other than they currently are.  Thus I think that the question you pose involves a false dilemma.  One can admit -- indeed, insist -- that we are not inherently the same and still work to eliminate gender differences.  The question is not "shall we have one or two different kinds of people?" but rather "shall we let people be fully themselves or not?"</p><p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 08 Nov 2007 15:54:38 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1838</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Do you believe that the future of feminism lies in downplaying our differences instead of "celebrating" and emphasizing them? It seems to me that bar physical differences, male and female gender roles are largely social constructs, and the marginalization of women is as much due to their own awareness of their "difference" compared with men.<br>A major example of this is the fact that we have a Minister for Women in this country. Is that not basically admitting that to be female is to deviate from a normative male standard, and that issues concerning therefore requires special attention? That is tantamount to admitting, accepting or condoning the fact that female interest is not present in all the affairs dealt with by other ministers (Finance, Health, Education), and it seems a contradiction in terms. It's more than positive discrimination - it's willful marginalization. On the part of women, obviously. It seems by seeking to put ourselves on an equal level with men we have overshot and are now seeking to separate ourselves even more.<br><br>Shouldn't the aim be to participate equally in all facets of life? I accept that there are still problems concerning gender equality in Britain, such as the glass ceiling, but I believe that has more to do with women wanting to have children as well as have a career, in which case they would be the first to admit that they cannot compete for the top jobs. Women now ave the possibility to value their careers over their families and can choose not to have children at all.<br><br>Basically my question is why feminists seem to want to actively take men's superiority from them instead of accepting that we are essentially the same and should co-exist as such?
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Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>You ask a powerful and intriguing question.  From where I sit, feminism ought to work towards a delicate balance of celebrating diversity and downplaying difference.  Diversity should continue to be celebrated in the name of liberty so that our society is able to support maximal forms of human self-expression.  Diversity should also be celbrated as a sort of vaccination against the oppressive potential of sameness.  It's often the case that sameness--or the downplaying of difference--is achieved by repressing some people towards the end of re-making them in the image of other people.  <br><br>On the other hand, the very ideas of woman and man (feminine/masculine) need to be undermined or at least loosened up a bit.  Celebrating women (as a category opposed or differentiated in its contrast to men) can also constrain people by establishing confining norms about what it means to be a 'real' woman.  Part of loosening the idea of woman will mean expanding it to include a diversity of woman, but part of it also will mean emphasizing the common ground between men and women that define us just as much as our differences.<br><br>Have feminists overshot, and do things like Women's Studies programs and Ministers for Women marginalize women.  That is a bit of an empirical question, but so far as I know the facts of the matter there remains a lot of specific work to be done regarding issues that are peculiar to women that justifies their existence.  One does see, and I think this a good thing, Women's Studies programs in the United States shifting their nomenclature to 'Gender Studies'.  In this, I agree with Gloria Steinem that feminism must become humanism.  But  not yet.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 08 Nov 2007 15:54:38 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1838</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism, Gender, Profession - Richard Heck responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why does it seem that everything that I read in philosophy always uses "she" or "her" instead of "his" or "he"?
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Response from: Richard Heck<br />

<blockquote><p>This is the effect of a successful political movement, one that sought to replace the use of "he" and "his", as "gender-neutral" pronouns, with the use of something else. The reason was that people thought that the use of "he" and "his", at least in certain contexts, made readers liable to assume that the pronoun referred to a person of the male persuasion, when it need not. One option is to use something that is truly gender-neutral, such as "he or she", but that is rather verbose. Some people therefore use "s/he", but that is ugly. I've taken to using "s'he", but I'm lonely. And there is a case to be made for "she" and "her", unaltered, as well, namely that it makes one conscious of something of which one might not otherwise have been conscious.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 11 Oct 2007 18:19:59 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1833</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Do you think that gender roles are socially constructed? I realize it's reductionist not to consider both the biological and the social influences, but I was wondering which could be said to have a greater effect on average, and what arguments would support this. Is there any inherent difference between male and female mannerisms (not thought patterns, because I believe that the differences there have been established empirically, as far as these things can be), or are they assumed gradually due to social pressures and expectations? <br><br>Also excuse my English! Thank you,<br><br>Isabella
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote>It is as you say difficult to know how one would unwind social and biological factors in determining gender roles, or indeed a whole variety of other roles also. If people were brought up in a rather different manner from the norm, and then exhibited rather different gender expectations and behavior, that would be suggestive of the significance of the social. These experiments are easier to carry out on animals, of course, and there does seem to be some evidence there that gender roles are to a large degree social and not natural. Many philosophers would want to query the radical distinction that sometimes is held to obtain between the social and the natural in any case. Even if a particular gender distinction is natural, that does not mean that we should make it, or act in accordance with it. Civilization is often taken to be the curbing of the natural by the social, and so even if it is natural for me to act as a brutish male, I hope I resist the temptation as far as I can.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 02 Aug 2007 16:00:02 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1740</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Beauty, Feminism - Jerrold Levinson responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Bonjour,  I am considered an attractive 26 year old woman. I have at times been asked to model but never have. I find our culture's obsession with beauty unappealing and it has led me to sort of play down my beauty in dress. Should I be worried or at least concious of society and its issues around beauty? Or should I just strive to be the most beautiful I can be, disregarding other things, purely for the sake of aesthetics?
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Response from: Jerrold Levinson<br />

<blockquote><p>I don't disagree with the first respondent, but I'll give you a somewhat different response, and taking my cue from the 'Bonjour' with which you open, will give it en français. (If the cue was misleading, I'll be happy to translate subsequently!) Premièrement, la beauté est une chose rare et précieuse, et ceux ou celles qui s'en réjouissent ne devrait jamais se sentir coupable à son égard. Deuxièmement, même si la beauté n'était qu'une affaire d'esthétique, qui dit que l'esthétique est moins importante que l'éthique, ou que l'esthétique ne comprend pas, d'une certaine optique, un aspect éthique? (Certainement pas Kant!)  Troisièmement, personne n'arrive vraiment à négliger ou à nier complètement les valeurs de la societé entourante; de plus, ces valeurs ne sont jamais avec du moins une certaine justification. Quatrièmement, c'est vrai que la beauté ouvre beaucoup de portes qui autrement resteraient fermées, mais ce n'est pas la sagesse de refuser d'y entrer pour cette raison seule; on n'a que d'y entrer avec circonspection, et sans aveuglement. Cinquièmement, pour en finir, je dirais que la vie de mannequin n'est pas, tout bien consideré, une vie souhaitable, mais qu'on peut quand même tirer de la satisfaction du fait qu'on vous l'avait proposée...</p><p>Put otherwise: First, beauty is a rare and precious thing, and those who possess it should never be made to feel guilty about it. Secondly, even if beauty is only an aesthetic matter, who says that aesthetics is less important than ethics, or at any rate, that aesthetics does not include, viewed from a certain angle, an ethical aspect? (Certainly not Kant!) Thirdly, no one can entirely succeed in ignoring or denying the values of the society around them, and those values are also never without at least some justification. Fourthly, it's true that beauty opens many a door that would otherwise remain closed, but it's not wise to refuse to enter them just for that reason, provided one enters circumspectly and without self-deception. Fifthly, to conclude, I would say that the life of a model is not, all things considered, something to wish for, but even so, one can derive some satisfaction from the fact of having been asked...<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 02 Aug 2007 15:08:27 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1743</link>
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