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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Knowledge"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge, Mind - Stephen Maitzen responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ If thoughts depend on memories and memories are unreliable then how can we trust any thought? I assume thoughts require memories because thoughts seem to require at least some time to compute, even with very simple thoughts we think thing one at a time - if it's not quite like that I think it's very close to something like that, maybe my whole doubt depends on a dubious connection between thought and memory, I don't know. I think the unreliability of memory is more obvious, memory seems to be something just given to us and we simply have to "trust" it but the possibility of doubt is still there. I recognize that there is some not inconsiderable paradox in doubting the very idea of being able to form a thought and using thought to achieve that doubt but alas... I wonder if this suggests that thought in its truest form is something more intuitive and directly related to a grasp of the present moment than reason as it is generally understand as a discursive process. 
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Response from: Stephen Maitzen<br />

<blockquote>Thanks for your question.  I'd distinguish the undeniable claim that memory is <em>fallible </em>from the less plausible claim that memory is <em>unreliable</em>.  I'm no psychologist, but it seems that the reliability of memory comes in degrees, depending on who's using it, under what conditions, and what its content is.  The kind of remembering described in your question -- remembering what I was thinking just an instant ago -- doesn't seem especially unreliable, under favorable conditions anyway.  Furthermore, we logically presuppose the reliability of memory in general even as we check whether some particular memory of ours is false: We ask those who are better-positioned what <em>they </em>remember, we trust that we correctly remember the meanings of words they use in their answers or the meanings of words we read in contemporaneous accounts of the event, and so on.  Indeed, if we persist for any length of time in our belief that memory is fallible, that too depends on trusting our memory: it presupposes that we correctly remember that memory led us astray at least once in the past.  So there seem to be limits to how sweeping any rational doubts about memory can become.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 25 Jan 2012 20:39:06 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4490</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge, Language, Philosophers - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Hello. This submission will include two questions. The panelist´s are of course free to answer only one of them, if the other turns out to be of no interest.<br><br>I´m no student of philosophy in the conventional sense, but lately it does consume much of my time. I remember reading Frege´s "The thought: a logical inquiry" a while back, and his answer to "an unusual objection" he thought he heard, puzzled me; "what if it were all a dream?" It seems to me that questions of this kind are unanswerable, and that Frege´s answer to this question is unsatisfactory. The (short) reason for this is simply that the question is one of fact, and one would have no possible way of empirically proving that one is not. What is your take on my objection? (I am aware that it is not one of the sections in the article that did the most impact on future philosophy)<br><br>The second question relates to the distinction between analytic and extra-logical statements. After reading "Two dogmas of empiricism" by Quine, I am left wondering about whether the word "analytic" remains unexplained. The question relates then to what objections Quine´s article met and what the general take on this issue is today.<br><br>Thank you very much.
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Thank you for these interesting reflections!  As for your first point, there are a number of philosophers who address radical skepticism (e.g. can any of us know with certainty that we are not, as we seem to be, wide awake and acting in the world rather than, say, dreaming?) in the way you suggest.  Arguably, life may continue just as it appears until one's death and yet there would be no decisive reason to rule out the possibility one was merely a brain in a vat.  And because of this, some philosophers think that such radical skeptical hypotheses are idle or nonsensical or of no interest.  I am somewhat of the other mind: I think we can imagine radical hypothetical states of affairs in which we are indeed systematically mistaken in almost all our beliefs about ourselves in the world (in brief, I think it conceivable that we might be in the matrix).  While this does not have awesome practical consequences, I think it should humble us in our knowledge claims.  As for the second point, Quine set out to dismantle the very categorical distinction between the analytic and synthetic.  Today, some think he was spot on, but there are large numbers of philosophers (including myself) who believe the analytic category is sensible and intelligible.  I think it is an analytic truth that 1+1 equals 2 --based on the principle of identity or A is A (because 2 simply is '1+1' and so 1+1 equals 2 because 1=1 equals 1=1.  You ask about explanations.  On that point, things get quite interesting.  The concepts of necessity, impossibility, and possibility can be explained in terms of one another.  So the statement '1+1 = 2 is necessary' is equivalent to '1+1=2 is possible and 1+1 is not equal to 2 is not possible.  To many of this, explanations like this are acceptable, but to some radical thinkers, such explanations are considered insufficient.  For a great defense of the analytic category and the concepts at issue, check out Alvin Plantinga's classic On The Nature Of Necessity.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 08 Jan 2012 16:08:19 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4466</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Existence, Knowledge - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Suppose I tell my friend that leprechauns don't exist. He responds: "Well, not in THIS realm, they don't. But they MIGHT exist in some hitherto undiscovered realm." <br><br>To what extent does the claim 'X exists' depend on its being discoverable, or knowable? As a curious person, this question has really bothered me the past few days. There's something comforting about having knowledge, and that there might be an infinite amount of unknowables is rather disconcerting to me. Does Ayer's position -- that for a claim to be meaningful it must either be tautological or empirically veriable -- apply here? <br><br>If someone could shed some light on this quandary, I'd be immensely appreciative. I really don't know my I allow myself to be bothered my these types of philosophical questions. 
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>While Ayer's verificationism has gone out of fashion (he and others could not settle on a formulation of it that did not rule out science or some such apparently meaningful discourse) there are forms of what is called anti-realism which define 'truth' in terms of warranted assertability, which would rule out the possibility of there being truths that are out of reach from what we can know (at least in principle).  Alas, there is a good argument against such a position in Thomas Nagel's work The View From Nowhere.<br><br>One other idea to consider is that your friend may be right but in a way that has nothing to do with <span class="caps">THIS </span>(our) world.  Some philosophers (David Lewis etc) have argued that there are indefinitely many <span class="caps">POSSIBLE WORLDS. </span> So, you might reply that, yes, leprechauns actually do exist but in a possible world not remotely related to ours!  Check out Lewis's book on the plurality of worlds.  It is awesome.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 22 Dec 2011 13:15:38 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4458</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Freedom, Knowledge, Religion - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ “The eyes of the Lord are in every place, watching the evil and the good.” (Proverbs 15:3)<br><br>This implies to me that God is omnipresent, through time and space. With that premise, what argument can be made for free will? If he can see every action we make, he knew the actions that Adam and Eve would make before their creation.<br><br>Thanks,<br>James<br><br><br><br>
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote><p>Just because God knows what is going to happen does not mean it has to happen, in the sense that human beings have to do what they end up doing.  For example, I always have sugar in my coffee, if sugar is available,  but that does not mean that I am incapable of having coffee without sugar. I used to smoke after a cup of coffee, but no longer do so, and here again I did not have to give up smoking. God doubtless knew what I was going to do before I did it, but the decisions to use sugar, and discontinue smoking all belong to me.<br /></p><p> </p><p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 24 Nov 2011 21:00:02 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4396</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge - Sean Greenberg responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I have been reading some of the work done in the analysis of knowledge for an epistemology course.  Stepping outside the debates being had as to what the definition of knowledge is I find myself questioning the idea of the analysis of knowledge in general.  Most arguments I have read seem to be focused on giving conditions of knowledge that describe cases in which we intuitively think that a person knows something.  But what is the validity of appealing to such an intuitive notion of knowledge for the basis of analysis?  Aren't our intuitions about knowledge too idiosyncratic and inconsistent to ever give a precise analysis of what knowledge is?  Is the analysis of knowledge really a philosophically interesting industry?
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Response from: Sean Greenberg<br />

<blockquote>Much depends on what you mean by "the analysis of knowledge."  I assume that you mean the attempt to explicate the respect in which knowledge is more than mere true belief, an enterprise that goes back to Plato's <strong>Meno</strong>.  It seems to me that you think that discussion that attempts to fill whatever condition is necessary for knowledge besides mere true belief fails to make contact with what we care about when we care about knowledge.  But even that discussion, I submit, seeks to capture the respect in which knowledge is valuable.  Apparently the methodology by which this investigation has been conducted doesn't appeal to you--you seem to have doubts about the appeals to intuition in this context.  While much ink has been spilled about the philosophical significance of intuitions, it does seem plausible that if one is to try to capture what is distinctive about knowledge, it is at least helpful to begin with clear-cut cases of the phenomenon as a starting point.  And it seems to me that the ultimate aim of the enterprise--determining the nature of knowledge--is valuable indeed.  Perhaps it will help you appreciate what is at stake in such debates to reflect on the significance of knowledge, which I think ultimately underwrites them.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 24 Nov 2011 12:42:27 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4399</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Suppose someone brings John a glass of tap water, which John watcher being poured from an entirely normal tap.  Yet suppose that the water from that particularly tap was somehow laced with poison.  When asked what the glass contains, John, not knowing of the poison, says "That's water."<br><br>Let's put aside the issue of whether witnessing tap water being poured is sufficient grounds for knowledge that the substance is in fact tap water, and assume that, were the water not poisoned, John would have a justified true belief about the contents of the glass.<br><br>Presented with the poisoned water, does John have knowledge about the contents of the glass?<br><br>I ask because, normally, our tap water contains a great deal of things besides water, yet we would not intuitively say that calling the stuff that comes from taps "water" is incorrect.  But if some of the stuff was poison, it suddenly seems that John's belief that the glass contains water is incorrect (despite, in a sense, being obviously true), because if he were to let that belief inform his actions, the consequences would not be what he expects, to put it lightly.  Yet in either case, the water contains a lot of things that are not water; so why is it correct to say "water" when there are lots of non-poisonous contents, but incorrect to say "water" when one of the contents is poisonous?
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Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote>Questions should be understood contextually.  In your story about John, we are led to assume that John is about to drink the contents of the glass, and not, for example, use it in a chemistry experiment requiring high levels of purity.  The suggestion is that it is water and not e.g. orange juice or beer.  A small amount of harmless impurities don't make any difference to its drinkability-as-water.   A tiny amount of cyanide, however, makes all the difference in the world to its drinkability-as-water.  It's not the amount of impurity that matters, its the difference the impurity makes to our intended use of the water.  (This is a case that shows the pragmatic functions of language.  Sometimes you miss things if you take language "too literally" i.e. devoid of context.)</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 27 Oct 2011 14:47:32 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4351</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge - Jasper Reid responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ do you think that there are certain knowledge that cannot be attained thru logic, and could only be attained thru other means like that of a meditation?  
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Response from: Jasper Reid<br />

<blockquote><p>To begin with a slightly pedantic point: logic doesn't actually give us very much knowledge at all. Logic tells us things like that, if <em>A</em> is true and <em>B</em> is true, then <em>A </em>& <em>B</em> is true. But, in order for us to be in a position to draw that conclusion, we first need to know that <em>A</em> is true and <em>B</em> is true. And, for most ordinary <em>A</em>s and <em>B</em>s, logic isn't going to tell us that. We need to turn instead to our senses. We have five external senses -- sight, touch, hearing, smell, taste -- which tell us about the qualities of objects in our environment. And, if we use these in a cautious and regimented way, and maybe start to draw logical inferences once we do first have the raw data to work from, then we can achieve an awful lot of knowledge.</p>  <p>But now to turn to your question: can meditation give us additional knowledge, besides that which we can get through the external senses? Yes, it surely can. Meditation can teach us what it feels like to meditate. Indeed, it might enable us to know quite a lot about our own internal psychological states. We usually don't pay a whole lot of attention to our own psychology... except when we make a deliberate effort to meditate upon it.</p>  <p>But can meditation operate as some kind of 'sixth sense', to give us knowledge about things outside ourselves? Frankly, I doubt it. That's an empirically testable hypothesis, after all, and I'm not aware of any studies that suggest that meditation can do this.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 22 Oct 2011 17:04:56 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4358</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge, Value - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ There was something that I wanted so badly for so long. Now, I got it but I am not as excited as I thought. <br><br>How can we know what we want (our goal) in life? 
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Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote><p>Some recent papers by the psychologist Daniel Kahneman suggest that we are not very good at predicting what will make us happy.  It is a good idea to read these to get a feel for human fallibility.</p>  <p>Philosophers often argue that reflecting rationally on our values and goals can lead us to pursue what we "really" want, and thereby lead to greater satisfaction.  You might try this and see whether it helps.</p>  <p>Some Buddhists, and some psychologists, argue that pursuit of a goal is more exciting than achieving it.  They suggest focussing on the activity rather than the desired result.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 23 Sep 2011 08:39:57 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4299</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge, Value - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ There was something that I wanted so badly for so long. Now, I got it but I am not as excited as I thought. <br><br>How can we know what we want (our goal) in life? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote><p>Some recent papers by the psychologist Daniel Kahneman suggest that we are not very good at predicting what will make us happy.  It is a good idea to read these to get a feel for human fallibility.</p>  <p>Philosophers often argue that reflecting rationally on our values and goals can lead us to pursue what we "really" want, and thereby lead to greater satisfaction.  You might try this and see whether it helps.</p>  <p>Some Buddhists, and some psychologists, argue that pursuit of a goal is more exciting than achieving it.  They suggest focussing on the activity rather than the desired result.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 23 Sep 2011 08:39:57 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4299</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge - Andrew Pessin responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is knowledge produced just to be sold? If not, then why are there ubiquitous tuition centres that are situated even within the tutors' houses, assessment books that encompass the many subjects students study for and take up the most space in most book stores (a generalisation),and sky-rocketing tuition and scholastic fees? Why do people perceive that the more knowledge you have, the higher the chances of you being successful and happy? And why do schools give difficult examinations? Is knowledge produced just to be sold, to be keep in secret, and will be only disclosed to the people who could afford to pay?
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Response from: Andrew Pessin<br />

<blockquote><p>There's a lot of interest here, and a lot that's problematic in your questions! ... There are empirical studies in the U.S. at least that show things such as that college degrees increase average earning power over the course of your life -- now whether that means 'the more knowledge you have' leads to 'more success and happiness' I don't know, but it's the kind of statistic that might be relevant to your concerns .... I am not inclined to think that (all) knowledge is 'produced just to be sold' -- it's produced for many reasons, including the inrinsic interest of producing it -- but if it turns out that (much) knowledge is in fact useful, and valuable, then why would it be surprising that it would also be sold, even if it isn't produced for that purpose?  Now if you're concerned about more political/sociological issues -- like what sorts of societies choose to have their education be so expensive, etc., that I can't say -- I too would prefer that education be far less expensive, be seen as a public right and not a privilege etc., but then that becomes an issue for politicians and not for philosophers ...</p><p>hope that's useful -- </p><p> best, ap</p><p>p.s. the philosophers on this site don't get paid anythign for participating -- so not ALL knowledge is sold! :-) <br /></p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 22 Sep 2011 20:30:15 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4285</link>
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