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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Literature"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ If every person can interpret a work of literature differently, by linking the depictions with experiences in their life or knowledge they have acquired, how is it possible for literary critics to "analyze" the meanings of works of literature?
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>This is a great and complex matter.  There are a few philosophers of art who come close to an "anything goes" approach to the meaning of a work of literature, but most of us think there are some boundaries in terms of historical context, the intentions of the artists, and most importantly the content of the work of art itself.  You might consider a distinction that some find useful between the meaning of a work of art and the significance of a work of art.  In terms of significance, a work of literature might have all sorts of features depending on how the work is experienced.  Reading Jane Austin might lead me to become a Marxist and someone else to become a Hindu, and so on, but while the book could have such multiple, different significant effects, to get at the meaning of her work we would need to study the plot, characters, England and continental Europe at the time, the English style she used, and so on....  Once we take those factors into account we can see (or I wager we will see) that her work was not meant as Marxist or Hindu literature.  Part of this seems to be the sort of thing we can debate objectively (pointing out that Austin died in 1817 whereas Marx wasn't born until 1818, for example) but we might also see how the meaning of a work might contribute to the significant future multiple readings and re-readings of works of literature.  In this sense, the meaning of a work such as Sense and Sensibility might remain constant through your life, and yet the work had a radically different significance for you when a young reader than when you re-read it at sixty.  I discuss some of these issues in a recent book, Aesthetics: A Beginner's Guide, which you may (or may not!) find of interest.  You have certainly raised a central matter that requires far more of a response than I have attempted in this short reply.  Good wishes.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 08 Jan 2012 16:55:05 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4471</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Justice, Literature - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ As it's the holiday season I've had a definite overdose of holiday mythology. The bit that got me thinking the most was re-encountering the character E. Scrooge, of Dickens' "A Christmas Carol", particularly in light of recent political/economic events in the US. How would a thoughtful philosopher characterize him and Dickens in this book? I'd not like to think that Dickens was engaging in mere sentimentality, that Scrooge is a character suitable merely for children, with no complexity to interest adults (though I'm aware "ACC" is mostly taught at the elementary school level). One of the talk-show hosts, I think it was Bill Maher, recently tried to cast Scrooge as simply a Republican, economically conservative. Is this a fair characterization? If we read the situation sentimentally, it's a moral tale against excessive greed. But the extent to which we should have a sentimental reaction to the economic plight of other people is an unanswered philosophical question, to my view. Is Dickens just being a moralist, trying to indoctrinate us with a simple message, or can Scrooge be read as an interesting character whose beliefs (prior to his conversion) have integrity and consistency?
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote>I know exactly what you mean, I have always thought that poor old Scrooge got a rather bum deal from Dickens. The trouble with being uncharitable, though, which Dickens gets right is that it harms far more the potential giver rather than the recipient. Scrooge holds onto his money but is miserable and gets very little benefit from it, while those with little who are generous with it and their time also are much happier. In a sense, then, Scrooge sees the light and becomes generous not because he understands he ought to help others, but primarily because helping others helps him most of all. <br /></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 05 Jan 2012 16:45:22 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4482</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Literary theory often urges us to ignore what the author believes or says about his or her own work, and to look at the text itself.  <br><br>Yet many literary theorists (perhaps not necessarily good ones, but many nonetheless) couch their analyses in terms of agency - like commenting of a horror movie that "The fact that the black man dies first tells us that black people do not have a place in this society", or, to quote an example our professor gave us, "The buttons in a tram that signal for the driver to stop are intended to train you into behaving in an impersonal and instrumental way towards servants."<br><br>If we are supposed to ignore what the author of these artifacts says about them (which is almost certainly at odds with the "analysis"), how can we then coherently speak about intention, suggestion, or other notions of agency?  Who is telling or intending, if not the creator of an artefact?
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote><p>There is a difference though between saying that the intentions the author evinces in writing his or her text are the meaning of the text, and saying that the text reveals a good deal about the intentional values held by the society that the text represents. Language is public and we do not control it, despite what Humpty Dumpty says. The author does not control the meaning of what is written, but that certainly does not mean we cannot investigate those meanings. </p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 24 Nov 2011 21:10:01 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4375</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Education, Literature, Philosophy - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ If you could recommend one novel for high school students about the subject of philosophy what would it be?  I'm looking for a work that is readable, entertaining and raises important philosophical issues as they relate to the Theory of Knowledge.  Many people online have recommended Life of Pi or Tuesdays with Morrie.  Any other suggestions? Much thanks in advance.      
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Zen and the Art of Motorcycle Maintainance might fit the bill, though it is a bit more oriented to metaphysics than epistemology / the theory of knowledge.  I am not sure it is super entertaining, but <span class="caps">C.S.</span> Lewis's book Until We Have Faces is terrific; it is a re-telling of an ancient myth.  You might also like novels by Hermann Hesse like Sidartha --it is a re-telling of the tale of Buddha's enlightenment, and is quite moving and rich for stimulating philosophical reflection.  There is a new book: Alice in Wonderland and Philosophy, raising all sorts of great puzzles (including epistemological ones) and that could be read alongside of reading Lewis Carroll's classics.  You might also check out the Ultimate Harry Potter and Philosophy book, which unearths interesting philosophy in connection with Rowling's work.  Although not out yet, there is a forthcoming Sherlock Holmes and Philosophy book which might be great to read along side short stories and novels about Holmes.  Here is another radical idea: you might try writing some short stories of your own that take up questions / arguments that arise from the Theory of Knowledge.  You could begin: George was in the tenth grade in a humanities course when he first encountered Descartes' worry that all our perceptions might be false.  He still could not shake the worry when the bell rang and he ran into Chris who had unshakable confidence in his views of the world......</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 31 Jul 2011 18:16:54 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4207</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature, Philosophy - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ When I read Shakespeare or Sophocles I feel like I am getting a glimpse into a powerful mythical dimension of fate and synchronicity that those writers seem to have a masterful vision of. However, the mythical dimension of life is more often associated with revealed religion (ie. The Bible, The Vedas, etc) than it is with philosophy. What philosophers have dedicated a central part of their philosophy to explicating those underlying forces of life that are dealt with indirectly in the works of great literature such as Sophocles and Shakespeare? (Aristotle doesn't get deep enough for me but he seems agree that tragedy is about the interconnectedness of forces, Hegel is too hard to read although his ideas about Tragedy being about the conflict of irreconcilable "rights" seems somewhat compelling, Nietzche's take on Greek tragedy confuses me because he is considered an atheist but I don't see how atheism gels with his assertions about Apollonian and Dionysian forces at work in tragedy, Freud sees Oedipus in terms that are fascinating because he sees underlying forces within the psyche as driving Oedipus's journey but he never connects those forces explicitly to a larger picture )  So who else writes about the mythical dimension of life from a philosophical vantage?
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>You have asked: who else writes about the mythical dimension of life from a philosophical vantage [point]?  Ralph Harper would be good to check out (try his book Sleeping Beauty).  He does some interesting philosophical and theological work on fairy tales, but his work does bear on what you might call the mythical (deep use of symbolism that resonates with the kinds of material you would find in the (highly recommended) The Oxford Companion to World Mythology (OUP, 2005)).  Richard Wollheim might also be good.  His writing is difficult (but not as challenging as Hegel!); you might check out The Thread of Life and The Mind and Its Depths.  Jonathan Lear is also a contemporary philosopher who is sensitive to mythology (he combines philosophy and psychoanalysis).  The philosopher and novelist Iris Murdoch might also be interesting, as she defends a fairly optimistic, contemporary, secular form of Platonism which may be seen as anti-tragedy.  Check out her books The Sovereignty of the Good (1970) and The Fire and the Sun (1977).  Actually, Plato himself may be read as replying to Homer (e.g. in the Ion and Republic) and in offering a counter-mythology (the myth of the cave and the myth of er).<br><br>Although Mircea Eliade was not a philosopher, two of his books are philosophically very interesting: The Myth of the Eternal Return and Patters of Comparative Religion.  There is an interesting Freudian reading of myths in the classic The Uses of Enchantment by Bruno Bettlheim, but this may have the same limitation you note with reference to Freud himself.  Though in fairness to Freud, I think he does connect his work on Oedipus and other myths with a bigger picture; this can be seen in his tragic naturalism as outlined in his 1930 book Civilization and its Discontents.  Erich Auerbach was also not a philosopher, but what he has to observe in his book Mimesis; The Representation of Reality in Western Literature is quite fascinating philosophically.  Have a go with the first essay, "Odysseus' Scar," and if you like it, keep going!</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 15 Jun 2011 14:56:05 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4108</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Existence, Literature - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ How do novels, plays, or works of music exist?<br><br>Consider the Iliad.  The original copy of the Iliad was lost long, long ago, yet the Iliad continues to exist through its copies.  If all original-language versions of the Iliad were to disappear, leaving only translations, one would assume the Iliad would continue to exist.<br><br>What if all copies of the Iliad in any language and in any material form were destroyed, and we were left with nothing but the memory of the Iliad?  Would it then cease to exist, until someone (presumably with photographic memory) decided to write it down again?  What if all memory and knowledge of the Iliad were erased, but copies still existed, lying around in old boxes where nobody remembered them?  Would it still exist if this were the case?<br><br>How can we conceptualize the existence of things, like an ancient epic poem, which exist in physical form yet are not dependent on these forms?
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>These are great questions!  Some works of art seem quite anchored in the material world.  Arguably, a marble statue like the David is in Florence.  But poems, plays, novels, musical compositions, and so on do seem more elusive.  Some philosophers who might be called Platonists tend to think that poems, plays, and the like are not themselves physical events or objects.  On this view, the Iliad may be thought of as an abstract object that can be acted out, recited, written down, remembered, loved or hated, but the epic poem is not itself a physical thing.  I am very much drawn to such a position and have defended it (in a short book called Aesthetics; A Beginner's Guide), but many philosophers resist recognizing abstract, non-physical objects.  Such philosophers (who might be called nominalists or conceptualists) might have to identify the Iliad as a complex cultural object that has multiple linguistic and social  dimensions.  For them, the Iliad's status may depend upon an on-going social practice, but for those of us in the Platonic camp, we think that the Iliad still exists even if all records of it fanish.  In such conditions, there would still be truths about the Iliad.  For example, in such a post-Homeric world, it would still be true that Achilles kills Hector in battle before his beloved city of Troy.  Nicholas Wolterstorff has a good book on such topics called (I believe) Works of Art.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 08 Jun 2011 11:19:19 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4094</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature, Philosophy - Gordon Marino responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I was wondering if you have any recommendations for works of fiction that have a clear, prevalent philosophical underpinning. For example, I enjoyed the theme of absurdism in Albert Camus' _The Plague_, but I don't have enough free time right now to commit to something like _Atlas Shrugged_. Perhaps there is a fairly accessible and thought-provoking philosophical work of fiction that consists of between 250 and 400 pages? Thanks.
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Response from: Gordon Marino<br />

<blockquote>Camus' THE STRANGER  and THE FALL would also be great. As well as Miguel Unamuno's, "St Manuel the Good Martyr." For another short masterwork there is Dostoyevsky's NOTES FROM UNDERGROUND and Tolstoy's DEATH OF IVAN ILYCH. Hope this helps. Happy reading.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 28 Apr 2011 14:46:10 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3715</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ In response to a previous question Sean Greenberg characterized philosophy as consisting of arguments? Is that true? Doesn't much of philosophy consist of description as well and isn't that different from argument? Is a defense of a description (which I think would require an argument) the same thing as the "description" itself? Hopefully that question made sense. Sean Greenberg's response was to a question about whether Shakespeare had a coherent philosophy. Wouldn't the idea that description is philosophy make the idea that Shakespeare has a coherent philosophy more plausible. (Also I suppose a person could use a brilliant philosophical insight without believing it and it doesn't have to fit together in the way Plato's Republic fits together) But then someone might say you can separate the philosophy from the text but I'm not so sure. Certainly something that transcends the text but is still coherently related to the text could be clearly exposited couldn't it? Is there any interest in literary theory by analytic theorists that addresses these kind of questions.
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Perhaps Professor Greenberg should reply to this, but here goes: I suggest that there are at least two ways of defining a philosophy.  On one meaning, to have a philosophy is to have a worldview or a conception of yourself, the world, values, and so on.  From this point of view, most people have a philosophy  Secondly, "philosophy" can stand for the disciplined reflection on world views or ways of thinking about reality and values.  The latter can certainly involve description, clarification, and criticism.  Probably Professor Greenberg put such an emphasis on arguments is that while philosophy can involve a great deal of exploration and exposition, a great deal of philosophy addresses questions of justification or evidence.  Using these distinctions, I think it likely that Shakespeare the person had a worldview and thus had a philosophy, but in the work attributed to Shakespeare there are multiple philosophies or worldview (Macbeth's philosophy seems different from Prospero's) and it would be hard (but not impossible!) to find straightforward philosophical arguments in the texts that would help us choose which philosophy is better justified.<br><br>To speak to your final suggestions, I do think that philosophy need not be seen as so defined by argumentation that this definition becomes a straitjacket.  After all, the term "philosophy" come from the Greek philo and sophia and is usually translated the love of wisdom.  So, in a sense, loving wisdom can be a philosophical activity, and perhaps a wise person is not always argumentative!  As for philosophical work on literature and the arts in general, check out the online site for the American Society for Aesthetics and the British Society for Aesthetics.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 16 Apr 2011 16:50:30 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3955</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature - Douglas Burnham responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ When reading a text, is it possible to determine the true meaning of the text, or is meaning that which is in some way picked up on by the audience, regardless of what literary critics say?  I ask because I've been reading lately about critiques of the portrayal of women in modern popular media.  A lot of literary critics seem to think that women portrayed as strong, independant Amazon-like warriors are just playing into objectifying dominatrix fantasies, while a lot of fans of these works (like Xena, for example) think just the opposite - that these portrayals are empowering.  So are the literary critics right, because they can presumably take apart the text more intricately and exactly, to find its true meaning?  Or are the fans right, because regardless of the structure of the text, they feel empowered by it?
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Response from: Douglas Burnham<br />

<blockquote><p>A question was asked last year, which had a different aim (but a very similar example). The responses, though, included ideas that should help you with your question:</p><p>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3587</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 08 Apr 2011 13:56:54 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3963</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Literature, Philosophy - Sean Greenberg responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Was Shakespeare REALLY a philosophical genius? I've read many impressive interpretations of his work from the various literary schools of theory but none of them seem to sort out Shakespeare's philosophical views in a straightforward and clear way. Have analytic philosophers deduced a coherent Shakesperean belief system from his works?
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Response from: Sean Greenberg<br />

<blockquote><p>Although I agree with most, if not all, of Professor Taliaferro's response to your fascinating question, I want to add a few remarks that may take the discussion in a slightly different direction.</p>  <p>You asked whether Shakespeare was a philosophical genius, and whether philosophers have "deduced a coherent Shakespearean belief system from his works."  I think that the two questions should be distinguished.  It's not at all clear to me that an author may be a philosophical genius only if a philosophical system can be deduced from his works.  Indeed, Wittgenstein, for example, who to my mind at least was certainly a philosophical genius, resisted--at least in his 'later' writings--systematization altogether, so it would be somewhat misguided even to <em>try</em> to deduce a philosophical system from his writings.  One might of course respond that Wittgenstein was systematically anti-systematic, and that that in itself constitutes a kind of systematicity.  But that seems to me to be a Pickwickian sense of 'systematic'.  I propose, therefore, that systematicity not be taken as a criterion of philosophical genius, or even of philosophy.  I now turn to the question of whether Shakespeare was a philosophical genius.</p>  <p>One could similarly ask whether Dostoyevsky or Philip K. Dick, was a philosophical genius.  Both writers, in certain of their works of fiction--to my knowledge, neither wrote works of philosophy--raise philosophical questions of various sorts, just as Shakespeare certainly does.  But does treating an issue of philosophical interest make the treatment of that issue philosophical?  I don't believe that it does; I believe that what's distinctive of philosophy is that it makes <em>arguments</em>, and it's not clear to me that works of fiction--or at least the works of fiction by the Dick or Dostoyevsky, or at least their works that I know--themselves make arguments.  (Characters in works of fiction make arguments, to be sure, but I would be very wary of identifying the author of a work of fiction with any one of his or her characters; moreover, it's not clear to me that that the <em>point</em> of a work of fiction is to make an argument--although that is not, of course, to say that I know what the <em>point(s)</em> of a work of fiction are, and in fact I would think that that is a matter of interpretation that would need to be settled on a case-by-case basis.)  Similarly, despite the recent vogue of treating films as 'doing philosophy', I'm quite suspicious of such an approach to film, although whether some film could be seen as 'doing philosophy'--even if it is granted that what's distinctive of philosophy is advancing arguments--is a question that can only be determined by considering the film in question.  (Of course, it might be argued that what I have highlighted as the distinctive feature of philosophy is too restrictive, and perhaps a more catholic conception of philosophy would more readily admit of treating works of literature and films and other art forms, too, for that matter, as philosophical.  But could <em>dance</em>, say, be treated as philosophy?  Now there's an interesting question, that might reveal something about the nature of the kinds of art that we think <em>could</em> be philosophy...)</p>  <p>What, however, about authors such as Diderot, or Tolstoy, or Camus, or Borges, who wrote <em>both</em> works of fiction and philosophy?  Might <em>their</em> works of fiction be philosophy?  This, I think, is a subtler and somewhat different matter, but I'm inclined to think that even the fictional works of such authors, although they may be seen as illustrating or exploring certain ideas with which they engaged philosophically, are not <em>themselves</em> instances of philosophy.  (<em>War and Peace</em> might be a tricky case for such a view.  But I stand by it, at least for the nonce.)  But there are of course other authors who wrote both works of fiction and works of philosophy, and here too, I think that in order to adjudicate the issue, one would need to consider each case.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Tue, 05 Apr 2011 18:58:31 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3951</link>
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