<?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1"?>
<?xml-stylesheet type="text/css" href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/rss.css"?>
<rss version="2.0">
<channel>
<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Mind"</title>
<description>You ask. Philosophers answer.</description>
<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/</link>	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind, Time - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ When I was a child, I wanted to know what forever was. I would sit and concentrate -- think and think and THINK -- until finally I felt what may have been a glimpse into something infinite. It was jarring, intense, and pretty incredible. What WAS that? Have other people had this experience?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote><p>Philosophers have expressed wide ranging views on the infinite, and even distinguished different kinds of infinites.  In terms of the 'infinite' standing for a sequence of events without end, then  (just as there is no greatest possible number) it is difficult for someone to claim to have experienced that (experienced all numbers, none of which is lacking in a greater number), though not perhaps difficult for one to claim to understand it (that is, understanding that there is no greatest possible number) or for someone to have an experience of time or space, along with the feeling that this will never end.  </p>  <p>There has been some interesting testimony by some philosophers to have experienced soemthing related that may be of interest.  Some philosophers have claimed to experience  that which is boundless or, in some sense, eternal.  Probably the two most famous philosophers to have spoken and analyzed such experiences are Boethius and Augustine.  Boethius spoke of God's eternity (and having some experiential acquaintance with God as eternal) in terms of God possessing the 'whole, simultansous, and complete fruition of a life without bounds' (interminabilis vitae tot simul et perfecta possessio').  This would be different from claiming to experience what you might think of as 'forever' or 'endless'; it is more like experiencing an event so overwhelming and perhaps good that you seem to lose track of future and the past.  This has been analyzed by some philosophers as experiencing something that is atemporal or beyond metric time or not bound by it.  The philosopher A.E. Taylor in an interesting book in the early part of the last century wrote of the experience of eternity in ways that are (to use your term) intense, but more satisfying than jarring or incredible (not worthy of belief).  In one example, he describes 'spending an evening of prolonged enjoyment in the company of wholly congenial friends.  The past may be represented for us, if we stay to think of it at all, by whatever happened before the party began, the future -but when we are truly enjoying ourselves we do not anticipate it- by what will happen when the gathering is over.  The enjoyment of the social evening has, of course, before and after within itself; the party may last two or three hours.  But while it lasts and while our enjoyment of it is steady and at the full, the first half-hour in not envisaged as past, nor the third as future, while the second is going on....'  Taylor goes on to defend the coherence and importance of experiences that seem to be in response to a value that we wish to last forever or not be bound by time, a state in which one or more people might be completely present to each other that they would never wish it to end.  See Taylor's book The Faith of a Moralist --the title is a bit misleading given what we mean by 'moralist' or 'moralistic' today versus when he wrote the book in 1930.  It is a good text for thinking about the experience of values and time.  (See especially chapters three to six.)</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 02 Sep 2010 07:53:48 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3475</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Ethics, Mind - Sean Greenberg responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is there a correlation between intelligence and morality?  I can imagine an intelligent person giving a sophisticated analysis to a complex moral question before acting as warranted by his/her analysis.  On the other hand, I can imagine a person of lesser intelligence acting in a moral and caring manner without much reflection, because he or she has been raised to be kind and considerate, and because kindness and consideration have always been part of the person's personality.<br><br>Conversely, it is pretty easy to see examples of immoral behavior from both more intelligent and less intelligent people as well.<br><br>It seems logical that intelligence would confer a greater ability to be moral, but everyday life does not seem to show any firm correlation between the two.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Sean Greenberg<br />

<blockquote>I think that how one sees the relation between intelligence and morality might well depend on how one conceives of morality.  If one had a strongly intellectualist conception of morality--as, arguably, Plato and certain early modern Rationalists, such as Leibniz, had--then one might well think that an agent's capacity for moral reflection might well depend directly on her intelligence, and so one might conclude that a more intelligent agent would at least have the capacity to be a more moral agent as well (although, of course, s/he might fail to exercise that capacity).  By contrast, if one thought that morality was a matter of following the law (as, for example, early modern natural law theorists, such as Pufendorf, thought), or that it was a matter of habituation (as, at least on certain interpretations, Aristotle thought), then one might think that the capacity to be a moral agent would be altogether independent of one's capacity for moral reflection.  Indeed, certain philosophers have suggested that one's capacity for moral reflection is most manifest in <em>unreflective</em> actions or choices, which would suggest that morality and intelligence could come unhooked altogether.  To be sure, regardless of how one conceives of morality, 'real life' examples may well reveal that theories of morality do not capture the choices or actions of agents: one might take such examples to reveal a problem with one's conception of morality, or instead merely to manifest a problem with an agent's moral 'performance', that is to say, the agent's actual manifestation of moral capacities, which nevertheless does not constitute any relevant evidence against a given theory of morality.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 01 Sep 2010 22:18:51 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3483</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind, Value - Andrew Pessin responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why do we, psychologically/philosophically speaking, put such an emphasis on things being "real"? What got me thinking about this question is the nature of our memories - while I can certainly recall some "half-memories" which probably never actually happened or even simply fabricate some, why do we place less value on these memories than "true" ones, even though they could theoretically have the effect on us?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Andrew Pessin<br />

<blockquote><p>great question ...  we might make some useful distinctions -- whether memories, beliefs, etc. are 'true' does NOT make an immediate difference to the individual, psychologically: we act on what we think, believe, remember etc., and in that sense the false thoughts/memories are just as 'valuable' or 'real' or important as the true ones .... however in many ways we like to orient ourselves towards the truth, to get our beliefs to be true, etc.; and thus when we discover some belief/memory is false we want to correct it .... (why we do or should care about truth in general is a separate issue; but most people simply do) -- so from that perspective, there's a large difference between the true ones and the false ones, as we seek to overcome the latter .... </p><p>the "idealist' tradition in philosophy -- esp figures such as George Berkeley -- would ultimately deny the difference between the true ones/false ones (or at least reconstrue it very differently from the way I've implicitly done here) -- so if you want to pursue your idea in more detail, I'd recommend exploring the work of Berkeley ...</p><p>hope that's useful --</p><p>Andrew<br /></p><p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 26 Aug 2010 14:57:28 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3477</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind, Science - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ If everything that physically exists is indeed the result of primordial coincidence, is there any way of statistically measuring the chances that human beings (in our present state of development and after hundreds of thousands of years of evolution) would be able to comprehend the origin and nature of the universe? <br><br>In other words, when I think about the organic lump of brain in my head understanding the universe, or anything at all, it seems absurdly unlikely. That lump of tissue seems to me more like a pancreas than than a super-computer, and I have a hard time understanding how organic tissue is able to reach conclusions about the universe or existence.  
 <br /><br />
Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote>I think the simple answer is that any probabilities we come up with here are pretty much meaningless. Probability calculations ade only as good as the information we feed into them, and it's hard to see what a well-formed question would be like here - not least since it would require some way of quantifying how hard the universe is to understand.<br><br>Perhaps there's some clever way to come up with a calculation, but let me turn to your other issue - the brain/pancreas thing.  To my inexpert eye, brains and pancreases hace a certain superficial resemblance, but neuroscientists will be able to tell you in a good deal of detail why the brain is  better suited to computing than the pancreas is. The real point here is that our casual impressions on such matters aren't really worth very much. After all, a casual look at my iPad makes it pretty mysterious that  it could be used to write this response, but that's exaclry what  it let me do.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 15 Jul 2010 13:13:11 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3363</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Some twelve step groups advocate taking the right actions to lead to the right thinking, "right" being defined as non-addictive behavior.  The phrase is "Fake it until you make it."  Is there a philosophical comment on that process, as opposed to the idea of thinking your way into the desired behavior?  
 <br /><br />
Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Interesting!  Philosophers have disagreed about the scope of our freedom and even over whether we (in non-addictive states) have freedom at all.  Spinoza, for example, denied that we have libertarian freedom (the freedom to do other than what we are determined to do).  The great majority of philosophers have affirmed our morally responsible freedom (or voluntariness), however.  Probably the two most famous cases of a "fake it, till you make it" involve Pascal and Descartes.  Pascal thought there were good prudential reasons for living a life of religious devotion, a life that included a belief in God.  He proposed that nonbelievers could cultivate a belief in God by practicing religious rites and acting as though they believed in God.  Descartes undertook a radical skeptical inquiry but decided before doing so that he would act in the world in conformity with the prevailing customs no matter how far his skepticism took him.  In a sense, he would "fake" or at least act as though he did not doubt the existence of the town he was in, even though his philosophy led him (at one stage) to doubt the existence of the material world itself.<br><br>Although I am not acquainted first hand with the 12 step program, I suggest that it would be backed up by Aristotle who held that virtue is achieved (in part) through the cultivation of habits.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 09 Jul 2010 10:29:07 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3349</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Language, Mind - Jennifer Church responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Does language shape our understanding of what we call reality (or, maybe, our perceptions of reality), or does reality shape our language? Is there, significantly, a German world, a French world and an English world, each of them different from one another in important or trivial ways? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Jennifer Church<br />

<blockquote><p>Here is a simple response, which I think is true: Language shapes our understanding and our perception of reality (different words will cause us to focus on different aspects of the world around us) <u>and</u> reality shapes our language (different environments will cause us to adopt different words).  Speakers of different languages all belong to the same world, however, for there is only one world. </p><p> Here is a more complicated response that may do a better job of addressing your concern: When people use different words to refer to the very same objects -- a bug, a chair, a curtain -- the differences in their view of the world can seem trivial.  But when different languages focus on entirely different things (even the words for objects such as bugs and chairs can have importantly different associations in different languages), they are bound to reflect important differences in the worldviews of the relevant speakers. In some cases, the different views may be quite compatible because they simply attend to different things -- different parts of a single world. In other cases, where there seems to be a disagreement about the very same thing (about what will help  a fever, for example), it may be difficult to decide who is right because it is difficult to decide whether the disagreement is really about the same thing (fever or something of which the fever is just a symptom? help reduce a fever or help it do its work? reduction in objective temperature or reduction in felt distress? etc.).  In these cases, we may say that the different speakers exist in different worlds as way of noting differences in their worldviews, but I think that this way of talking is dangerous insofar as it encourages us to give up on the attempt to communicate with others about our common world.<br /></p><p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 08 Jul 2010 16:14:33 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3376</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Identity, Mind - Amy Kind responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I am going under anesthesia in about a month. Once it is administered and I am unconscious, how do I know that the person who wakes up will be me and not a doppelganger with my memories? In other words, how do I know my stream of consciousness will continue after a period of unconsciousness instead of a distinct stream of consciousness starting for the first time?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Amy Kind<br />

<blockquote><p>The prospect of going under anesthesia is a scary one, for all sorts of reasons.  But I don't think you should have much cause to worry about identity issues.  I have two comments that might help alleviate your concerns.</p>  <p>First, you might ask yourself:  What would be the difference between its being <em>you</em> who wakes up from the anesthesia and its being a doppelganger with your memories?  From the outside, you would seem exactly the same.  And from the inside, it would seem the same too.  Your doppelganger might be thinking something like this:  "Yesterday I was worried about whether <em>I</em> would wake up from the anesthesia, and I'm glad that my worries were for naught -- here I am."  In other words, the prospect that you're proposing is not really one that can be discerned -- either from the inside or from the outside -- as one that makes any difference to anything.</p>  <p>But if that doesn't help (and I'm a bit worried that it won't), it might better reassure you if you think about anesthesia on the analogy of sleep.  I doubt that you think that the person who wakes up each morning is merely your doppelganger with your memories, so why should it be any different with anesthesia?</p>  <p>Good luck with your surgical procedure.</p>  <p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 13:31:29 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3343</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Does writing a book or making a film render a hard copy of (part of) one's mind outside the brain? Are these two products as close as one can get to making one's mind accessible to others?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Without getting into the technicalities of philosophy of mind, I suggest that there is a general sense in which you give other people access to your mind any time you are honestly disclosive and expressive of your thoughts, feelings, desires.  Films and books may be disclosive of the mind of the author / director, but they also may obscure and mask a person's inner thoughts.  <br><br>Actually, you might consider flipping around the question and ask whether it makes some sense to think of works of art having a mind of their own.  Arguably, this is all a matter of metaphorical attributions, but in our experience of art works can't we sometimes pick up a mood or emotion (there is anger or passion or desire in that film / book / painting, for example).  John Updike once remarked that he thought books should have at least one secret.  Of course one may interpret that as Updike claiming that the author should perhaps not be completely disclosive of all aspects of the plot and characters.  But what about considering the idea that a book itself may be keeping a secret from you.  It is a metaphor, but isn't it one that can make reading more exciting?</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 24 Jun 2010 14:36:28 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3282</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ What happens to thoughts once they are acknowledged? I.e. where do thoughts go once they have surfaced in the mind? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Great question!  Undoubtedly there is a neurological basis for conscious thinking and so there is a sense in which the brain plays a role in sustaining thinking and the brain definitely has a location, <span class="caps">BUT </span>it is not clear whether thoughts themselves are the sorts of things that can have location.  Does the thought "New York City is not the capital of New York State" have a certain size or weight or mass or color?  It would be odd to think so.  But let's consider where thoughts go, not in terms of spatial location, but in relationship to our conscious minds.  <br><br>Some philosophers acknowledge that in addition to our conscious mental life there is the unconscious and the sub-conscious.  The difference between these is not obvious, but in general the former is thought to be more difficult to retrieve or bring to the surface of full consciousness.  Presumably you know many things or can be said to have lots of thoughts about subjects you are not consciously reflecting on now.  This knowledge is sometimes called dispositional knowledge.  When you are not actually playing the piano it may be true that you know how to play (or you have the disposition to play) because, under proper circumstances, you could play.  So, one answer to the question of where thoughts go when you no longer are reflecting of them is that you either retain the thoughts sub-consciously (or maybe even unconsciously) or that they are what we might think of as dispositions (you are disposed to recall them).  A fuller reply to your question would need to take into account the philosophy of memory.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 17 Jun 2010 16:18:58 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3264</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Mind - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Are there good philosophical reasons for taking drugs? Michel Foucault, Aldous Huxley and Sam Harris are examples of people who have experimented with drugs for creative purposes and in order to gain insight. Given that one is destined to live their entire life in sobriety (which is just one state of consciousness), do they have an inherent right to experience other consciousnesses which completely alter their understanding of reality? In this sense, can people who have not taken drugs but criticize them, be considered ignorant in that they have no experience of drugs? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>Yes, I agree with you. There are good philosophical reasons for experimenting with mind altering drugs, the same reasons that make it desirable to experience travel, different kinds of people, different cuisines, different art, etc. Now, of course, the benefits of mind-altering drugs must be balanced against the harms they can produce, and those harms are real enough, although, arguably suffering of various kinds is also something that can provide one opportunities philosophical insight. But just as one is not obligated to suffer or experiment with different cuisines, one is not obligated to experiment with mind-altering drugs. Those who do not experiment will be in some sense ignorant, but it's not clear that philosophically speaking theirs will always or often be a pernicious or limiting ignorance, no more so than the ignorance of one who has not traveled to Peru or experienced the pain of cancer. Moreover, the ignorance will not be complete, for many philosophical purposes one can gain relevant information about the effects of mind-altering drugs from scientific, journalistic, and autobiographical literature. Nevertheless, benefits are possible and well established by the testimony of those who have experimented.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 16 Jun 2010 04:05:16 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/3263</link>
	</item>
</channel>
</rss>