<?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1"?>
<?xml-stylesheet type="text/css" href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/rss.css"?>
<rss version="2.0">
<channel>
<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Music"</title>
<description>You ask. Philosophers answer.</description>
<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/</link>	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Douglas Burnham responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Recently I've had trouble comprehending the idea of a divide between music and noise. I was wondering, are noise and music one and the same? To compose something with the intention that it be noise music seems paradoxical to me, since music and noise seem to be two opposite ends on the line of 'sound'. Yet there exists noise music and even freeform jazz, with completely random notes and seemingly no structure at all. Is this still music? It seems to me that music is a form of art, and art is expression - so there is no reason really why this kind of noise shouldn't be classed as music, since it is the artists intention that it is music, even if its just random noise being recorded. <br><br>I'm having real trouble understanding whether this is an actual problem or not. It seems to me there shouldn't exist any kind of boundaries in music (and so no boundaries between music and noise?), yet I am reluctant (for some intuitive reason perhaps?) to acknowledge these noise projects as forms of music.<br><br>Thanks for your time, any help would be greatly appreciated.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Douglas Burnham<br />

<blockquote><p>A similar question has already been asked. Have a look at:</p><p><a href="http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/729" target="_blank">http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/729</a></p><p>It seems to me that 'music' and 'noise' are being used in twodifferent senses here. First, an 'objective' sense, as types ofthings whose properties can be enumerated. Second, as values: 'I likethis', 'this is important', 'this is what music should be' and soforth. Here as in so many cases, distinguishing these senses andkeeping them separate is very difficult, perhaps impossible. </p><p>It may be possible to give a fully objective description of sometypes of noise (e.g. 'white noise') but otherwise the term is appliedin a value-laden fashion: what is noise to one person is joyfullyraucous to another; even to the same person at a different time.Moreover, music is not a thing, it is a cultural production and a culturalreception, and any definition will have to rely upon cultural normsand histories. So, a piece of contemporary music that appears asnoise at first may 'resolve' itself into something meaningful for mesimply because I become aware of the cultural traditions within whichit rests.</p><p>The problem you identify is a real one, but it is not a problem of definitions or establishing a divide. Rather, the issue is understanding the processes of cultural production and both cultural and individual reception. </p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2111</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ It is generally accepted that certain intervals in music sound "harmonious", i.e. 3rds, 4ths and 5ths. Why is this so? Why do these certain intervals constitute a pleasant sounding harmony, as opposed to jarring, dissonant intervals like 2nds and 7ths? I do not believe it is a matter of taste - most people, even those with no musical training will uniformly identify a harmony as harmonious (or in tune) or dissonant (or out of tune, I suppose). However, I am open to being disproved on this point.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>It's an intriguing phenomenon. And it turns out, so I gather, that it's not confined to humans. Various animals differ in their responses to what we label consonant and dissonant intervals. Why this should be isn't something that a philosopher, as such, is in a good position to say. It clearly has some physiological basis and seems to have something to do with the phenomenon of "beats" (something you can actually experience as pulses when two high-pitched notes that differ slightly in pitch are played together.) One <a href="http://jn.physiology.org/cgi/reprint/86/6/2761.pdf" target="_blank">study </a>I discovered (by Jonatan Fishman et al. of Albert Einstein medical college) looks at the neural correlates of dissonance  in macaques and in humans. If you're able to follow the neurophysiological details (I'm not) you can have a look at the link. There are also references to earlier work.</p><p>There are still some things left over that a philosopher might want to puzzle about. One is the sort of thing that physiology might straightfowardly  help us understand:  why is it that intervals we identify as dissonant are also perceived as unpleasant when we hear them in isolation? Another is famously hard to get a handle on: suppose that Fishman and his colleagues are right and that perception of dissonance has to do with "oscillatory neuronal ensemble responses phase-locked to the amplitude-modulated temporal envelope of complex sounds" -- whatever exactly that means. How do we get from that to "what it's like" to experience dissonance? Of course, that's of a piece with a much more general question: how do we get from physiological accounts of perception and sensation to the way that we experience things? This is a question that divides philosophers deeply; they are nowhere near agreeing on what would count as an answer, nor even on whether the question is a good one to begin with.</p><p>Fishman <em>et al</em> point out that there's a distinction we need to keep in mind: the dissonance of intervals (such as the minor 2nd or the augmented 4th) vs. <em>musical</em> dissonance and consonance. Dissonant intervals occur all the time in music that we find quite pleasing (as I'm sure you're already more than well aware.) And it's not just that the alternation between dissonant and consonant chords adds musical interest; whereas a major 7th (e.g, C-B) sounds dissonant by itself, when we add notes to form a major 7th chord (as in C-E-G-B) the result sounds pleasant to most people, even in isolation. One suspects that there's a complex combination of cultural and physiological factors at work here; this is clearly an area for fruitful collaboration among aestheticians, psychologists and physiologists.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1826</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Joseph G. Moore responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Vaughan Williams' music has been termed 'nationalistic', or 'spiritual'.  Would you construe these terms as metaphorical?  They have been used to decribe and categorize his music, have been seen as attributive, and his music has been known for these qualities for generations.  I would really appreciate a comment on your view of  'nationalism'  as metaphor for a body of music.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Joseph G. Moore<br />

<blockquote>I won't comment on Vaughan Williams's music in particular, but I certainly think music that evokes and celebrates a certain nationality can accurately be described as 'nationalistic'. And I don't see that such a description is any more <em>metaphorical</em> than many of the other descriptions we employ with music: 'sad', 'anguished', 'triumphant', 'relaxing'  and also 'spiritual'--though I won't say anything more about what might make music spiritual. <br><br>One way--though perhaps not the only way--for music to be nationalistic would be for it centrally to include certain melodic, rhythmic, harmonic or intrumental elements that are unique to a given nation. If a composer includes such elements <em>because</em> they will be recognized as deriving from that region, and she moreover uses them in an approving or celebratory fashion, then I think her music is nationalistic. And I don't see that describing it this way is any more metaphorical than rooting for that nation's soccer team, or pridefully ordering its beer.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1604</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Does music have any intellectual content?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>As opposed, I suppose you mean, to affective or emotional content?  Yes, both in the lyrics or librettos of various musical compositions and in the web work of meanings that have come to be attached to various sounds.  Like most, if not all, artforms, music exists in an historical context, and within any context music relates to other music.  So rhythms, harmonies, instrumentation, chord progressions, intonation, etc. evoke symbols, social ideas, abstract ideas concerning music theory, social criticism, human relationships, the divine, etc.  Musical compositions themselves are associated with cultural movements (modernism, tradition, militancy, rebellion), fashion, politics, even entire civilizations (the Europe, Africa, India).  When we listen to a song, we listen to a history and to a society.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1601</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ What is music?  I can recognise music from cultures other than my own as being music, even if I don't enjoy it; but what makes a series of sounds 'music'?  Similarly (I assume), when does human vocalising become song?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>What a fascinating question.  I hope that some of my co-panelists can give you the answer this question deserves.  For myself, I would briefly and cautiously answer this way:  What makes a series of sounds (or even a single sound or even a silence) music is our agreement to consider it as music.  Just as John Cage invites people to consider the silence and random sounds that occur during a 4 minute and 33 second period music (his piece is called, <EM>4' 33"</EM>) and Marcel Duchamp invites people to consider a urinal as sculpture (he called the piece <EM>Fountain</EM>), we make something music when we interpret it as music.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1497</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Art, Music - Douglas Burnham responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Appreciation (as in appreciation of music, poetry or visual arts) concerns a subject that has become central for a certain, large public and a fair amount of books and articles are devoted to the subject. This notwithstanding, appreciation has received scarce attention from philosophers. It could be that my literature search has not been thorough enough in which case: could you point out for me philosophers that have dealt with appreciation?<br><br>     If I am right, and philosophers do not consider appreciation a worthy subject: could you point out possible reasons?<br><br>     Thanking you for your attention,   <br>                                     Jorge D. G.
 <br /><br />
Response from: Douglas Burnham<br />

<blockquote>Aesthetic appreciation means well-informed, skilled and close attention to a work of art, all of which can be improved by various types of education. It may be that philosophers of aesthetics tend to not use the word 'appreciation', but the constituent ideas are certainly important. Have a look at previous answers on this site under the heading of 'art': quite a few of them concern context, culture or knowledge. </blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1499</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Joseph G. Moore responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why is it that no matter what language is spoken or what culture you come from, the Moonlight Sonata is perceived as a sad song (an assumption of mine of course)?  What does that suggest about the nature of music, and its correlation to humans that seems to transcend national barriers?  Do animals or non sentient creatures recognize these emotions, or would an alien sentience?<br><br>Jon
 <br /><br />
Response from: Joseph G. Moore<br />

<blockquote>I'm not sure the Moonlight Sonata is perceived as sad by every person in every culture. This is an empirical question: our perception of music's expressive features has some dependence on the musical culture(s) with which we're familiar, though I gather there's greater cross-cultural uniformity than one might think. The question of how animals or aliens might hear music is also empirical, though I gather there's little evidence that animals respond to music in the ways we do.<br><br>The philosphical question is why we perceive music as having expressive featues like sadness in the first place. This is puzzling because there's no comfortable place to situate the sadness: listeners don't always or even typically feel sad when perceiving sad music, and music isn't a phenomenon that seems capable of emotions.<br><br>I wish I had a good account to offer you. One possibility is that we hear music as having an expressive feature when it resembles in some way the vocal quality, body-language or other behavior in which humans typically express a given emotion. This might go some way towards exaplning why a slow rhythm or drooping melody can express lament or reflection. But it doesn't, in my view, go very far towards explaining the emotive properties we percieve in a minor tonality.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1434</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Thomas Pogge responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Imagine I know all the songs ever made by a particular musician, and I listen to his music over and over again, so that I know them off by heart and they mean a lot to me. How well then can I claim to know and love that musician as a person? Can I assume that his songs reflect his personality and self? If I know them, can I assume that what I understand them to be gives me some insight into him? Could I fall in love with him just by virtue of his music? 
 <br /><br />
Response from: Thomas Pogge<br />

<blockquote><p>It is surely possible that a person's music reflects his or her personality and self, and possible that, by listening to this music, you gain insight and understanding of him or her as a person. But I would be very reluctant simply to assume that this is so. Here are three reasons why.</p>  <p>First, the inference from artwork to artist's personality is hardly straightforward. It is rarely true that only a very specific kind of person could possibly have produced a certain set of artworks. And there is little reason to believe that we are good at tracing whatever such connections there may be. I have often been stunned at seeing an artist I greatly admired say silly things in interviews, often including silly things about his or her own artworks.</p>  <p>Second, we live in a world of commerialized art, where a single popular song can pull in millions of dollars. A great deal of money is therefore spent on fine-tuning songs to fit a certain free-spending segment of the audience. To put it bluntly, many an artist is "designed" by marketing specialists who try to manage every tiny aspect of her or his public persona (including appearance, of course, but also little missteps, scandals, and all this) for maximum sales impact. Singers are (also) commercial actors, playing roles for a paying public.</p>  <p>Third, the claim or belief that you know and love this musician as a person is of no real value to you. Imagine, for example, that you have an opportunity to meet him. He does not know you; and for any sort of meaningful relationship (including love) to develop between you, you would need to spend time together, walking, talking, dancing, dining, and such. As he would get to know you, you would have ample opportunity to test and perhaps revise your earlier hunches about his personality. It's just so much better for two people to fall in love with each other than for one of them to do it all by herself... . -- In other words, there's no good reason to gamble on the assumption that you understand him. </p>  <p> </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1336</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Mark Sprevak responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is music a language? And if so what requirements should a language satisfy?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Mark Sprevak<br />

<blockquote>There is no uncontroversial definition of a language. However, a requirement that is often cited is that there should be rules on how different elements of a language are composed together (syntax). Another requirement is that the elements of a language should have representational content (semantics).<BR><BR>Music arguably passes the first requirement: notes cannot be strung together in any way one likes to make music. But it appears to fail the second requirement: it is not obvious that individual musical notes represent anything at all. One might argue that sometimes there are phrases in music that do represent: for example, different instrumental lines in Prokofiev's <I>Peter and the Wolf</I> represent the activities of different animals. But these tend to be rather isolated cases of representation; they are not as widespread and systematic as one would expect from a language (e.g. flutes in music do not always represent birds, or indeed anything at all).<BR><BR>Even if music is not a language in the above sense, that does not mean that there aren't interesting connections between language and music, or that our linguistic and musical abilities aren't related.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1167</link>
	</item>
	<item>
		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Music - Joseph G. Moore responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Music is often described as having something to do with emotion. But a song or a sonata can't literally feel happy or sad, so what is the connection to emotion?
 <br /><br />
Response from: Joseph G. Moore<br />

<blockquote>You're right that a work of music can't literally feel sad. It's also true that we, the listeners, often (perhaps even typically) don't feel sad when we hear a sad piece of music. In fact, we might feel exhiliration or awe in the presence of a wonderful performance of a sad piece--a slow one in a minor key, for example. (If sad music typically made us sad we probably wouldn't choose to listen to as much of it as we do.) There's no reason to think that the composer or performer(s) of a sad piece of music need to feel sad. So who or what is the <em>subject</em> of the emotions we seem to perceive in music? <br><br>And come to think of it, unlike garden variety emotions, the emotions that we perceive in music don't have clear <em>objects</em> either. What is the sadness of the music about? <br><br>Even though the emotions we seem to hear in music have no clear subjects or objects, it often (though not always) seems right to describe music in emotional terms. Saying how this can be is one of the central problems--if not <EM>the</EM> central problem--in the philosophy of music. And there's still significant disagreement because sorting it out touches on broader issues such as the nature of artistic expression and interpretation, as well as the nature of emotions and moods. I won't sketch the options here, but instead recommend Peter Kivy's recent book <EM>An Introduction to a Philosophy of Music</EM>, which provides a nice account of these issues.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1165</link>
	</item>
</channel>
</rss>