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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Perception"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Color, Perception - William Rapaport responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Can a person who was born blind know what "red" looks like?  Is there any way you can explain it to him/her so that he/she can perceive it the way we do?
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Response from: William Rapaport<br />

<blockquote>There are two different, but related, issues here, on neither of which is there universal agreement among philosophers (but, then again, is there ever?).<br><br>First, there's "Molyneux's problem":  Can a person born blind who later gains sight distinguish a cube from a sphere merely by sight (assuming the person could distinguish between them by touch)?  There's some empirical evidence that the answer is "no".  The psychologist Richard Gregory has investigated this.<br><br>But closer to your specific question is the philosopher Frank Jackson's thought experiment about "Mary", a color scientist who lives in a completely black-and-white world but who is the world's foremost expert on color perception.  She has never experienced red.  Would she learn anything if she experienced it for the first time?  I.e., is there anything "phenomenal" to the experience of red over and above what physics can tell us?  Jackson originally argued that there was, i.e., that Mary would learn something from the experience of red, namely, what it's like to see red, but he has recently changed his mind.  The novelist David Lodge has explored the Mary story in his novel <em>Thinks....</em><br><br>For more on Jackson's thought experiment, see the anthology edited by Peter Ludlow, Y. Nagasawa, and D. Stoljar, <em>There's Something about Mary </em>(MIT Press, 2004).<br /><br /></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 11 Dec 2008 14:05:51 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2463</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Jonathan Westphal responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ The visible spectrum of light starts at red and moves to violet.  Wavelengths of E.M. radiation slightly longer than red are infra-red and shorter than violet are ultra-violet, neither of which is visible to humans.  My question is then: why do we see the spectrum of visible color as a cycle moving seamlessly from red to violet and through violet into red again (think of a color wheel)?  Why do we not see the visible spectrum the way it would seem to make the most sense, i.e., fading in from invisible infra-red and fading out to invisible ultra-violet?  This has been bugging me for some time now, hopefully one of the panelists here can give me a satisfactory answer or point me in the right direction.  <br><br>Thanks, <br>-Liam C.
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Response from: Jonathan Westphal<br />

<blockquote>The fact is that the correspondence between colour and frequency is rough and approximate. To some "colours" (and what does this mean?) there corresponds no wavelength, or no single wavelength, of monochromatic light. Examples are the browns, the appropriately named "non-spectral" purples, and white. (Black is also an example!) The colours form a circle (roughly) or a three-dimensional solid of which the circle is a cross-section at middle brightness in fixed illumination. This is colour space; and the frequency scale does not really model its overal complexity, except around the one corner at the edge: the spectrum. This is related to the fact that there are three types of cone which respond to coloured light, not four. There is no photoreceptor which peaks in the yellow, so when we see yellow it is the "red" and "green" cones that are being stimulated. Scientists tend to draw the conclusion that "colour is a sensation", as Maxwell put it. But this can't be right, as I see it, for the most part for the reasons given in Thomas Reid's philosophy of sensation and perception. The relation between colour and frequncy or wavelength has been an issue since the wave theory of light was introduced by Thomas Young, but the problem was there for Newton even though he held a corpuscular theory of light; the big particles stirred up red or "red" sensations (_n.b._ red <em>sensations</em>), and the little ones blue ones, but the "Rays" (paths?) made of these corpuscles were "strictly" not coloured.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 27 Nov 2008 17:08:54 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2415</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ All the empirical objects that I perceive around me are structures of sensations: sensations of color, tactile sensations such as hot and cold, hard and soft, and rough and smooth. But sensations are supposedly manufactured in the brain, out of neural signals delivered from the sense organs. This leads to two questions: how do they get out there, into the real world; and if sensations are unreal --- they exist only as long as they are perceived --- and the real world is composed of sensations, is the real world really real?
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>I think the best place to begin is with the first sentence: "All the empirical objects that I perceive around me are structures of sensations." I think this confuses two things. The objects we <em>perceive</em> are things like tables, chairs, tin nickels and left-handed paper-hangers. And none of those things are structures of sensations. Now it may be that the way we perceive these things is <em>by</em> having various sensations, and it's also true that in some sense the sensations are manufactured in the brain, brought about with the causal assistance of the paper-hangers and such.  But the machinery of perception isn't the same as what's perceived.</p><p>More generally, it's no surprise that we perceive things by way of stuff going on in our brains. But that stuff isn't what we see; it's what makes seeing possible.</p><p>So yes: the real world really is real (last time I checked). It's not composed of sensations, though sensations may be among the many things that make up the world entire.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 27 Nov 2008 13:02:38 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2441</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Jennifer Church responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I was looking at earlier questions in your Perception section and was intrigued by Prof. Moore's answer to the one of the car driving down the road and appearing to get smaller with distance (http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/548). He said that the size of the real car is an intrinsic property of the car, but the size of the apparent car is a relational property of the real car, and subtly so. I wish he would explain this subtlety, because I just don't get it. I can see that the distance between the car and the observer is a relational property: the relation is the distance, and its terms are the apparent car and the observer. But how can the apparent size of the car be a relation? The apparent car has an apparent size which, it seems to me, is just as much an intrinsic property of the apparent car as the real size of the real car is an intrinsic property of the  real car. I am also fascinated by the question that he did not answer: at what distance must the car be for us to see its real size? Please tell me!
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Response from: Jennifer Church<br />

<blockquote><p>There are real cars, with real sizes -- five feet high, twelve feet long, for example -- and they would be these sizes even if there was no observer to notice them.  When a real car appears to an observer to be smaller, or larger, than it actually is, we can speak of its apparent size as opposed to its actual size; but the notion of an apparent size only makes sense in relation to an observer to whom the car appears to be one size rather than another.  That is why Prof. Moore considers the real size of a car to be an intrinsic property while the apparent size of a car is a relational property.   </p><p> The distance between a car and an observer does not translate into a difference in the apparent size of that car to that observer since a distant car may appear to be its real size to some observers, and a nearby car may appear to be bigger or smaller than its real size to some observers.  Thus, there is no general answer to your question about what distance a car must be in order for us to see its real size.  Some people, in some circumstances, are very good at seeing the real size of a car at a distance; others are not.<br /> </p><p>Finally, it is important to remember that there is no such thing as an apparent car.  If someone seems to see a car of a certain size when there is in fact none to be seen, that is a fact about the observer -- not an intrinsic fact about a non-existent car nor a  fact about a relation that exists between an observer and a non-existent car. The temptation to reify 'apparent objects' is partly responsible for  the sort of confusions that you express in your question.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 12 Sep 2008 20:52:17 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2276</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Language, Perception - Louise Antony responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Dear sir or madam,<br><br>I have a question about language, epistemology, and truth. When I make the statement "it's hot in here" is that a statement about external reality or my internal perception? Is this an objective claim (i.e. there is such-and-such temperature and that qualifies as "hot") or simply my perception of an occurrence (i.e. I don't like how hot it is.)<br><br>The former explanation seems compelling since we can argue about that statement: you can claim that it's not hot in here; I simply came inside from a room with air conditioning, so I *think* it is hot and am mistaken. On the other hand, the latter explanation makes sense since we are only perceiving the heat in the room and not taking any kind of empirical index. But, if this explanation is true, why do we use objective language about the room rather than our experience of the room?<br><br>It seems to me like this might be a kind of "in-between" claim: based on my experience of the room and my understanding of the experience that would likely elicit in most other persons, there is an excessive heat for the subjective experience of a significant portion of the population. Is this an adequate explanation and if so, what do we make of these "in-between" truths? Do they have any value or do they really communicate anything?<br><br>In some ways, I suppose this question is parallel to questions about emotive language in ethics.<br><br>Thanks for your time,<br>-JAK
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Response from: Louise Antony<br />

<blockquote>The surface grammar of the sentence “It’s hot in here” suggests that the sentence is about an objective state of the room.  Let’s start there.  	There are two features of the assertion of this sentence that make you think it might not be about the temperature of the room: first, the assertion is based on a subjective experience of mine, and second, it uses the vague term “hot”.   Let’s start with the first consideration.  Notice that any claim anyone makes about contingent states of the external world is, if it’s a justified claim, going to be based on that person’s sensory experiences.  If I say “You forgot to turn off the burner on the stove,” my claim will probably be based on seeing the flame, but my statement is a statement about the burner, not about my visual experience.  Or if I say, “Something’s burning,” it’s probably because I smell the scorched butter, but it’s still the butter I’m talking about.  (Guess what I did this morning making breakfast.)  	Contrast these cases with cases where I really do mean to talk about my sensory experiences: “It looked as if the burner was still on from where I was sitting,” “I smelled something that smelled just like butter burning.”  In your case, the contrast would be between my saying: “It’s hot in here.  (So turn on the air conditioning.)” with my saying: “I feel so hot all of a sudden.  (I must be having a hot flash.)   The first claim is a claim about the temperature in the room, and can be corrected, if it’s false, by someone else: “No, it’s not; it just feels that way to you because you’ve been sitting in an overly air-conditioned car.”  The second claim is a claim about my subjective experience, and no one else is in a position to correct me about that.	You say that we are “only perceiving” the heat in the room, and not taking any kind of “empirical index.”  But in fact, “taking an empirical index” is exactly what perception is.  (And I really like that phrase!)  Our eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin are highly sensitive registers of specific physical magnitudes.  The “brute” information about these magnitudes is then processed by specialized neurological systems into representations of the external world, which we can access consciously and report on.  Now think about what’s going on when I report, on the basis of looking at a thermometer, that the room is 85 degrees.  The thermometer is functioning just like my skin does, reacting in a regular, law-governed way to changes in the ambient temperature.  And in reading the thermometer and reporting on it, I am acting just like my own sub-personal (or unconscious) information-processing systems in accessing and reporting on the information delivered by my sense receptors.  There is this difference between the two cases – a difference that might contribute to your thinking of the thermometer reading as “more objective” than the report based on the way the room feels to me: in the case where I read the thermometer, my evidence is publicly available, whereas in the case where I base my claim on the way the room feels, my evidence is available only to me.  But that difference doesn’t affect the objectivity of the claim made – in both cases, I claim something about the room.  	Now: what about “hot”?  There are two things that you might be picking up on here.  The first is that “hot” is an imprecise term.  That means that the content of my claim is somewhat indeterminate: how hot does a room have to be to count as hot?  Where is the boundary between hotness, and mere warmth?  Insofar as it seems to be up to me to fix the answers to these questions, the truth or falsity of the claim appears to be up to me.  After all, you and I could differ on what counts as “hot.”  (Think about the silly chili pepper symbols they put next to foods in some Mexican or Indian restaurants.  They tell you that a three-pepper dish is going to be hotter than a one-pepper dish, but how hot, in absolute terms, is a three-pepper dish?)  This is a problem about calibration, or rather about about synchronizing your calibration system with mine.  Having some kind of external register that we can both refer to – like a thermometer – can help with this problem, but it doesn’t eliminate it.  It only helps if we take for granted that our perceptual experiences of the states of the external register are synchronized.  (Think about worried parents trying to decide whether to call the pediatrician: “Does he look pale to you?”  “Would you call that a ‘rash?’” “I wouldn’t say the vomiting was ‘projectile.’”)  Furthermore, note that the “precision” of a thermometer is only relative – the marks on a thermometer have width, after all, and the level of the mercury might fall within the space of a single mark, rendering the reading “85 degrees” vague.  Is it 85.1 degrees or 85.3 degrees?   The thermometer at my house couldn’t tell you.	But now the second thing about “hot” is that it’s an adjective that begs for a complement.  There’s no such thing as “absolute hotness:” what’s hot for a room is not at all hot for an oven.  So the claim that something is “hot” seems to need qualification; we need an answer to the question “hot” for what kind of thing?  Terms that behave like “hot” are sometimes called “syncategorematic” – they are only meaningful “with a category,” only in the context of modifying something.  But to say that they must be used in connection with some kind of thing is not to say that that thing has to be explicitly mentioned.  If I say, “it’s hot in here” my listeners will probably figure out that I mean to say that it’s hot for an interior room.    (Compare: I stick my head a little ways into the oven to check whether it’s working: “Whew!  It’s hot in here.”) We human beings are (as the eminent psycholinguist Lila Gleitman says) are geniuses at pragmatics – at figuring out pretty complex thoughts on the basis of very stripped down verbal expressions.   Sometimes we don’t have all the information we need to interpret what a speaker is trying to convey on the basis of what they say: if someone in another room shouts: “It’s way too cold!” I might not be to tell that she’s talking about her coffee, which is only 85 degrees, or the room, which is 72.  But often enough, a shared context, or shared knowledge of the speaker’s context, can solve the problem of finding the presumed comparison.	Bottom line: there’s no reason to think that the surface grammar of your sentence is misleading.  The statement “it’s hot in here” is a statement about the room.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 04 Jul 2008 10:51:14 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2216</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Am I correct in thinking that vibrations in the air are just one cause of sound, and that really sounds are what are experienced? So for example under this definition of sound, ringing in the ears is included. Equally then, that sights can be caused by light bouncing off objects but also by the imagination? Can I draw the conclusion then that there are an equal number of sounds/sights/tastes/smells/feelings that have ever existed, than have ever been seen/heard/tasted/smelled/felt? The tree that falls in the woods with no one in it makes no sound at all (but plenty of vibrations)?<br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br><br>
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>The issue here seems to be verbal. It's not clear that ordinary language has a settled answer to the question whether "sound" refers to the vibration in the air, or to the experience that the vibrations cause. If we fix on the former, then there have been plenty of sounds that never led to any experiences. If we fix on the latter, then sounds and experiences of a certain sort are one and the same thing. But there's no deep fact about which is the "right" way to think of it.</p><p>Something else worth keeping in mind: language doesn't map onto the world in any simple, direct way, and in particular we need to be careful about letting the fact that we have the noun "sound" fool us into thinking that there is some <em>thing </em>in the world -- a sound -- whose location (in the head? in the landscape?...) needs to be sorted out. <br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 06 Apr 2008 18:39:41 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2055</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Are rainbows real? That is, do they exist unperceived?
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Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>The <em>Guinness Book of Records</em> says (or at any rate, used to say) that the world’s longest lasting rainbow was continuously visible over Sheffield for some six hours on 14 March 1994. Here's a <a title="Rainbow over Sheffield" target="_blank" href="http://www.hedgerow.co.uk/image/type__general/searchstring__category%3A2/imgid__11159/">picture</a> (I had an office in the Arts Tower at the time which is why I know about it!)</p><p>Now, did the <em>Book of Records</em> do some research to check that at every single second from  9am to 3pm, <em>someone </em>or other was perceiving the rainbow? I very much doubt it! I guess that the <em>Book of Records </em>supposed that, to establish the record, it was enough to have grounds for thinking that,at any moment in those six hours, someone suitably placed and lookingin the right direction <em>would </em>have seen the rainbow (it was continuously perceiv<em>able</em>, though not necessarily continuously perceived).  </p><p>And the <em>Book of Records</em> is speaking here entirely in accordance with our ordinary ways of talking about rainbows as continuing to exist unperceived. I see a dramatic double rainbow, go to fetch someone to see it, and when we get back to the window say "oh good, it is still there". And what makes it the same rainbow that is still there at those two different times? Indeed, what makes it the same rainbow that is visible at a given time by differently located people, given that it would look to be in a very slightly different location to them? Nice questions! Presumbably the answers will appeal to something to do with the continuity of what <em>would</em> have been seen over time had we been looking, or the continuity of what <em>would </em>be seen if we moved from one viewing position to another. </p><p>Anyway, we certainly <em>do</em> talk of seeing the same rainbow again after a temporal gap,  when perhaps no one happens to be looking. We <em>do</em> talk as if rainbows can continue to exist unperceived.</p><p>But ok, <em>should</em> we talk that way? Given what we know about the mechanisms by which we come to see rainbows as we do, should we <em>really</em> talk about them sometimes as if they are real persisting things than can exist unperceived? </p><p>Well, why not? I'm inclined to be pretty relaxed about this. Talk as you like -- so long as you are not misled! </p><p>Rainbows are variously like rabbits, rivers, ripples, holograms, and mirror images, in each case in some ways and not in other ways. In different contexts, we might want to stress different similarities or dissimilarities among such things.  Perhaps a small child will be helped  a bit to understand what is going on if you say "Rainbows aren't really there you know, there isn't a real coloured arch in the sky". But equally, if the same small child starts to think of rainbows as a kind of waking dream or a private illusion, then we might say "Oh it is really there, I can see it too!". </p><p>Which suggests that here (as elsewhere) the dichotomy "real"/"not real" is a crude tool -- and what we (seem to) talk about doesn't in fact sharply divide into two neat categories.<br /> </p><p>But still, the similarities between rainbows and central cases of "real" things are probably enough to give point to those everyday, <em>Book of Records</em>, ways of treating rainbows as real things that can exist unperceived. So we might as well, to that extent, continue to fall in with our ordinary language practice here. </p><p>So long as we do not mislead ourselves ...<br /></p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Tue, 04 Mar 2008 09:49:41 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/2031</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Joseph Levine responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I have a theory which I would like to develop. I was wondering if it is possible that all human perception could differ from person to person. My reasoning is, if you are born into this world a seeing, hearing, smelling, feeling, tasting individual, your senses learn to describe different perceptible things form that very time. The problem with this is, is that each individual has parents, who also had parents, who had parents and so on. If I was born, and I saw a completely different world, or tasted things very differently, I wouldn't be able to communicate these things because every description I can provide is synonymous to what it is called. For example. If I am looking at what is called an apple, I see a round, object with a stem. For the sake of argument it will be a red apple. The thing is, I could be seeing a spinning vortex, but because this is how I have always perceived things, I describe it at a red apple. I suppose this isn't a question, but what do you think?
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Response from: Joseph Levine<br />

<blockquote><p>Your view about the possibility that people perceive things radically differently is an old philosophical puzzle.  The so-called "inverted spectrum" hypothesis is the most common variant.  Assuming that color space is organized symmetrically, so that one can switch primary colors like red and green, or blue and yellow, while maintaining all the similarity relations among them, it seems someone could see red wherever others see green and yet there be no difference in their behavior.  As you point out, they would learn to call red things "red", even though they looked green to them.  Perhaps there could be inversions of other properties as well.  So is this really possible?</p><p>  One way of approaching the issue is to distinguish between what we might call the "representational content" of a perceptual experience and its "qualitative character".  The representational content is what the perceptual experience is "saying" about the world around you.  So if you see a red apple, your visual experience is "telling you" that there is a red, round object, an apple, at a certain location.  The qualitative character is the subjective "feel" of the experience, what it's like for you to be seeing the apple.  Given this distinction, we can ask whether the possibility of a behaviorally undetectable inversion - a difference in experiences that can't be detected by what the people say or how they act - applies to both the representational content and to the qualitative character, or just one (or, indeed, neither). </p><p>        There are good reasons for thinking that an inversion with respect to what the experience is representing is not possible.  The point is that on a very plausible theory of what determines what the experience is representing, a theory that grounds the representational content in the facts about what conditions in the world reliably produce the experience, the sort of inversion you are imagining won't occur.  Since both people are experiencing what is reliably produced by the same wordly conditions, their experiences will automatically count as representing the same conditions.  However, when it comes to the more elusive feature of qualitative character, it does seem possible that an inversion occur.  Some philosophers try to argue that such inversions aren't possible, but I, for one, have never been convinced by their arguments.<br />  </p><p><br />  </p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 13 Dec 2007 16:15:59 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1888</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Perception - Saul Traiger responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Living things have perception. When a sensory cell is disturbed, a chain reaction is caused which sends the sensory data to the brain where, through very physical means, it is analyzed and thoughts and emotions are created. <br><br>If this is all done by physical means, by the complex physical reaction which is the nervous system, do seemingly non-organic things such as my  computer have perceptions as I do?
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Response from: Saul Traiger<br />

<blockquote><p>If your question is whether “yourcomputer,” which I take to be an ordinary personal computer, has perceptions asyou do, then the answer is clearly “no.” Your computer has input devices suchas a keyboard, and possibly a scanner, a video camera, and a microphone. Such input devices transduceranalog physical processes into discrete digital symbols, and those symbols arestored in various locations in the computer and then can be manipulated inconcert with computer programs and further input. Your brain also takes inputfrom external physical stimuli such as light, sound waves, etc. It alsotransduces those signals into other forms, typically chemical and thenelectrical signals. Those electrical signals – action potentials, are then propagatedto other locations in the central nervous system. So both the brain and yourcomputer transducer signals and do things with them. One could call bothprocesses “perception”, though the actual mechanisms in your pc and your brain arefunctionally different, and it is a bit misleading to describe them both asperceptual mechanisms.</p><p>A related question is whether computers<em>could</em> have perceptions, that is,whether we could build computers which transduce external stimuli in the sameway our brains do. This question is harder to answer, and it’s one widelydebated in the philosophy of mind and cognitive science. Part of the reasonthis is such a difficult question to answer is hinted at in your question. Ourperceptual systems begin with external physical stimuli, but we wind up with “thoughtsand emotions.” So to build a computerwhich takes in such stimuli and stores or outputs thoughts and emotions wouldrequire that we not only have a functional account of the mechanisms by whichwe receive such stimuli and begin to transduce and store it, but a full accountof what the mind/brain does with such information in order to bring about therich experiential life we enjoy.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 25 Oct 2007 13:41:14 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1848</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Knowledge, Perception - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ How can anybody, including myself, be sure that what is seen is real?<br><br>My right eye was scratched, and I can see this scratch-mark before "reality", as one would see their right hand before their left if they arranged the two that way. I wonder if this proves the external to be an actual place within something (the universe?), like it has an absolute position within my (a sentient being) perception.<br><br>This brings me to my final question: How can I prove the distance between my two hands? When I look at my right hand in front of my left hand, I see them as two objects apart from each other, but I sometimes see a flat picture, like a movie screen: it is manifestly flat but produces 3-dimensional pictures. Does this mean that my eyes create reality to be other than what it is, like how they create depth to be where it really is not? Or does this mean that my eyes are perceiving reality as it should be perceived? Ugh! And the thought that those who cannot "see things" in ink-blots on white paper have learning disabilities peeves me. They should be proud that their minds do not create fallacies! That is what I think.
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Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>Yeah, these are the kinds of questions that lead many of us to "Argggh!"  They're also the kind of questions that I approach with a great deal of trepidation because they are knottier than knotty.  So, please understand that what I say here by the nature of this kind of exposition will be very rough and overly simplistic.  You'll also probably find more than a few of my colleauges to disagree.  But anyway, let's barrel right on with it.<br><br>I don't think you can be absolutely sure that what you see is what's "real"--though you really ought to take some time to parse out what you mean by that word because it's <span class="caps">LOADED. </span> I take it that you mean by "real" something like what's out there independently of us.  In a sense, actually, my best shot is that what you or we see isn't exactly real in that sense.  Do remember that old Aristotelian question, "When a tree falls in the forest and there's no one around to listen, does it make a sound?"  Well . . . get ready . . . almost yes, but no.  No in the way that it's not precisely right even to talk about "trees" and "forests" existing independently of us.  Before you call for an ambulance to pick me up, what I mean by that crazy sentence is that what we experience is a kind of product of a number of factors, roughly our perceptual faculties and what seems to exist independently of us and interacts with them.  The sound of a tree falling, for example, is the product of (1) our sense of hearing and (2) something like sound waves.  Without either of these factors there's no sound.  (If you think about it, this is actually obvious.  Just ask any deaf person, or go into a silent room.)  We contribute some of what goes into experience, and the external stuff contributes some of it.  That goes for all the other dimensions of our experience of a tree falling or just a tree. Since in this sense there is no "sound" without the hearing of sound, then it really isn't meaningful to ask whether the sound we hear is the same as the sound that's out there.  You see, there is no sound out there.  Sound, like every other perceptual experience, exists in the relationship the relationship between us and what's not us. (Actually, I shouldn't even say "us"; but let's just let that slide.)  No objects of experience strictly speaking exist out there.  Now, it doesn't follow from this that nothing exists beyond us.  I think there are pretty convincing, if not absolutely convincing, reasons to think so--at least I'm convinced.  The shorthand way I'd put it is that the world we experience is external reality as it appears to us through its interactions with us. (And we are what we experience of us in the course of that interaction--there, I've said it.) <br><br>About your eye, I'd say you interpret what you see as a scratch, and your interpretation works better than others.  So, go with it.  <br><br>About whether we experience reality the way it "should" be experienced. I don't think there's any way reality "should be perceived".  It just is perceived, and we make the best of it we can.<br><br>About "proving" the distance between your hands, I'm not sure what you mean.  Once you've accepted hands and distance as meaningful, once you're in that relationship, you pick up (or have someone else pick up) a measuring tape and measure.<br><br>About seeing three dimensinal pictures at the movies, I'd say you see two-dimensional pictures that you full well know are two-dimensional and interpret them or imagine them as representations of three-dimensional things.  You don't really think of them as three-dimensional; otherwise you'd duck when someone shot towards the screen or a robot exploded, or something.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Wed, 23 May 2007 15:50:52 EDT</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/1631</link>
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