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<title>AskPhilosophers.org | "Sex"</title>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Sex - Nicholas D. Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ On December 9, 2005, Nicholas D. Smith wrote a response that said in part:<br><br>"For the ancient Greeks, prostitution was entirely socially acceptable... whereas free males were expected never to commit oral sex (on any sex partner, male or female)."<br><br>From what text(s) do we know this?  <br><br>Is there some text in which it is explicitly forbidden?  Or do we infer it from stories and plays?  
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Response from: Nicholas D. Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>The gounds for my claim are twofold.  On the topic of committing oral sex on females, it is an inference based upon the practice being treated as shameful in Aristophanic comedy.  (See the note on this in Jeffrey Henderson's <em>The Maculate Muse</em> on p. 185; though compare what Henderson has to say on p. 52--obviously, I draw a different inference from the evidence!  See also Kenneth Dover's understanding, given in his <em>Greek Homosexuality</em> on p. 102.)</p>  <p>As for oral sex on males, those who were eligible to become citizens in Athens could be denied this opportunity if evidence could be given that the candidate had ever allowed any part of his body to be sexually penetrated.  For other evidence, see Dover, p. 99.</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 06 Jan 2012 18:07:53 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4441</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Ethics, Sex - Charles Taliaferro responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ My girlfriend and I have recently moved to a new area, and have encountered an unfortunate problem.  In this area, the birth control pill is only available upon prescription by a gynecologist, and gynecologists are required by law to refuse handing out the prescription until after a woman has undergone a standard checkup.<br><br>Normally, this doesn't seem like such a big deal, but my girlfriend has only been to a gynecologist once and adamantly refuses to do so again, as she is afraid the check-up will be horribly painful.  She has, in fact, declared that we should simply stop having sex until we find a way to acquire the pill without her undergoing a gynecological check-up (we only ever use double-protection, condom and pill, to try and minimize the risk of unwanted pregnancies); her only idea is to get her mother (who works in a pharmacy) to send birth control pills per post.  If that doesn't work, it looks like I'm in for a dry spell.<br><br>I am confused as to what I am allowed to do, ethically speaking.  I know that gynecological checkups are important - my own mother was spared full-blown cervical cancer thanks in part to frequent checkups that caught the abnormalities early.  It was frightening to hear that my girlfriend had not had any regular check-ups, and even more so to hear that she intends to never visit a gynecologist.  But I feel that my sexual relationship to my girlfriend compromises any authority I might have to try and convince her to go.  Ultimately, any attempt I make to convince her to go to the gynecologist to get the checkup and the pill are tainted by my desire to have sex with her; I would effectively be trying to take control of her body and ignore her wishes for my own pleasure, and I've always believed that was wrong.<br><br>So, ethically speaking, what can I do?  Am I allowed to try and convince her to go to the gynecologist and get checked up?  Or should I accept whatever she decides to do with her own body?  What do I have the right to do?
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Response from: Charles Taliaferro<br />

<blockquote>Tough to say.  Off hand it seems that trying to convince her to have such a check-up is profoundly to act in her interest in terms of her fundamental health.  Also, it certainly seems that desiring to have a healthy sex life is not something that "taints" or should taint the boyfriend - girlfriend relationship.  You mention "authority" --which is an interesting term here, but it may not be out of place.  I suppose in a close friendship, we do give authority to our friends to offer (even unasked for) advice.  But that authority does seem to be limited by an acceptance of one's friend's or partner's independent judgment.  You write about accepting "whatever she decides to do with her own body."  That does seem right, don't you think?  You cannot (with justice) compel her or trick her into having the check-up, and that leaves you with deciding what the future of your relationship will be like (under the conditions you both commit to) or to decide whether you even wish to continue being in such a relationship.  You may decide that such a neglect of health reflects some serious misjudgment.  You and she might get lucky and get the pills anyway.  Or you both might explore the many varied ways in which one can achieve sexual satisfaction without intercourse.  These are very personal matters, which is my clue to simply wish you and her the very best!</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 07 Oct 2011 13:18:54 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4319</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Business, Sex - Nicholas D. Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Why is prostitution considered immoral, as long as it is a service that is provided, just like the service of a driver or a cleaning person? Why is a prostitute seen like a person of low value and why do we think it's immoral that she sells herself for money, because, if we think about it, any person who works and gets paid is also selling himself for money.<br>Thank you!
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Response from: Nicholas D. Smith<br />

<blockquote><p>Kinda depends on what you think is OK to buy, sell or rent, doesn't it?  We don't accept slavery, because we don't think <em>people</em> should be for sale or should ever be owned--though we accept that it is OK to pay for the labor that people can perform in some cases.</p>  <p>So I agree with the premise of your question: in general, we seem to be OK with paying for services.  Is sex something that we should (or could permissibly) think of as a kind of service?  Notice that such a view of sex is different from the view we take in romantic circumstances.  There, we take sex to be a kind of intimacy between two people--a way of relating lovingly to one another.  Prostitution, I think it is safe to say, isn't like that.  It is more, as you say, like a service.  But surely one could reasonably wonder whether thinking of sexual acts as services is the right way to conceive of them.  </p>  <p>Now, as with so many ethical questions, we might find that we are led to different sorts of answers if we apply different kinds of ethical insights.  Do people have <em>rights</em> with respect to the uses of their bodies?  Well, it seems so.  So why do the prostitute and john not have the <em>right</em> to do with their bodies as they please, given consent by both parties?  Well...maybe the rights of others get engaged here, too--rights of the members of the rest of society to determine what sorts of commerce they will, and what sorts they will not, permit within their communities.  So perhaps an individual's right to the uses of his or her body is only a prima facie right that might be defeated if it comes into competition with the political or economic rights of communities to regulate commerce or other aspects of social interaction...?</p>  <p>(I confess I am not all that good at this way of thinking, so I will allow others better at this to chime in here.)</p>  <p>But let's take a different tack.  Go back to what I said about sexual acts as services.  I'm a virtue theorist in ethics, so the way I take this sort of question is as follows: Would a virtuous person think of sex acts as <em>services</em>?  I think not.  It seems to me that an admirable human being would neither think of sex acts as services, nor would he or she wish to have others <em>serve</em> them in such a way.  This is not at all to say that admirable human beings would abhor sex!  It is, rather, to say that they would think of sex acts from a point of view that was other than that of <em>serving</em> or <em>being served</em>.  So, from this point of view, there really does seem to be something wrong with prostitution--it functions on the basis of a view of sex that we would not really wish to promote, if we were seeking to encourage virtue, and one that seems to be the product of a faulty view of the value of the activity in question--a value that is not virtuously commodified.</p>  <p>Notice that this is not at all an argument to the effect that prostitution should be outlawed, or that it should be regarded as morally impermissible.  Lots of stuff falls short of virtue that we would not outlaw or anathematize.  There may even be aspects of certain kinds of sexuality that actually find sex-as-service part of the thrill.</p>  <p>But even so, we can fault such things on the sorts of grounds I have given, and so it seems that there is, from a virtue theoretic point of view, a genuine moral <em>fault</em> in prostitution (from both the prostitute's and the john's points of view) that we would not similarly assign serving as a driver or cleaner.  These latter activities seem to be correctly (and thus virtuously) conceived as services.  Not so, for sex--even if the idea turns you on!</p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 22 Sep 2011 19:34:22 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4259</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Sex - Peter Smith responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ People drink beer to have fun and nobody calls that selfish. People play games and sports with one another to have fun and nobody calls that selfish. But when two persons have sex with one another just to have fun many people call that selfish. Does that make any sense?
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Response from: Peter Smith<br />

<blockquote>No.<br><br>There isn't anything intrinsically <em>selfish</em> about <em>sharing</em> fun a deux, whether it is singing duets, riding a tandem, or sex. <br><br>Of course, the sex-for-fun might be cheating (if you are in a relationship) or unwise (if you  don't know where s/he has been) or against professional ethics (if you are a doctor, s/he your patient) or a bad idea for other reasons. But then again, it very likely will be just fine.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sat, 10 Sep 2011 18:40:07 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4295</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Feminism, Gender, Sex - Miriam Solomon responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ In this question, I'm going to assume there are strictly two human biological sexes, male and female. That assumption isn't exactly true (chromosomal variations), but it's a close enough approximation to ask the question.<br><br>At restaurants such as "Hooters," provocatively-clad females serve food to patrons. There are no male waiters. No one seems to think too much about it.<br><br>I think, however, that many people would be appalled if we had restaurants whose theme was to have provocatively-clad Jewish people serve food, or provocatively-clad African Americans serve food, or provocatively clad [insert religious or ethnic or national group] serve food.<br><br>There are, of course, ethnic restaurants. So we might think of Hooters as nothing more and nothing less than another type of ethnic restaurant, this one peculiar to sex instead of ethnicity.  Is this good reasoning? <br><br>Maybe that reasoning is not valid.  Women have a sex (female) and men have a sex (male).  There can't be anything intrinsically more sexual about women than about men; they obviously both have a sex.<br><br>Completely separate from biological sex, there is something we might call "sexualization,"  achieved through dress and behavior. So Hooters sexualizes one group -- women -- to the exclusion of another -- men.<br><br>So maybe the correct analogy here really would be a restaurant to sexualize all waiters (both male and female) of a particular ethnicity.   Is this good reasoning? <br><br>Why is Hooters socially normative, while a restaurant based on the sexualization of an ethnic or religious group would be considered inappropriate?    <br>
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Response from: Miriam Solomon<br />

<blockquote>The questions that you are asking are terrific!  They can also be taken further.  E.g. is it necessary for you to assume that there are strictly two biological sexes? (I don't think so).  Or e.g. What is wrong (if anything) with sexualization of a group?  What is wrong with sexualization of a subordinate group?  It is not difficult to turn up inconsistencies in what society considers to be socially normative.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 02 Sep 2011 11:17:23 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4274</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Animals, Sex - Peter S. Fosl responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ As an argument against bestiality, it is often said that animals are not able to consent to sex.<br><br>If this is the case, though, wouldn't that mean that every instance of two animals mating is an instance of rape, since presumably neither of them are able to consent?
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Response from: Peter S. Fosl<br />

<blockquote>Well, if someone is struck by lightning is it murder?  A necessary condition for the commission of a crime is that the candidate criminal be an agent. Arguably, non-human animals are not. So, just as they can't consent to sex, they are incapable of rape or murder. Concepts of moral or criminal propriety just don't apply to non-human sex. One reason one is tempted to think otherwise is that non-human animals have moral standing. That is, they are the proper objects of moral consideration, and one can act morally or immorally towards them. But not everything with moral standing is a moral agent. Now, having said that, I do think there are other reasons for your justly wondering about this question. The sexual congress of plants and microbes doesn't raise this question. You aren't likely to wonder whether bees rape flowers.  But the sexual activity of animals more closely related to humans seems strikingly similar to our own conduct, as do many non-human ways of eating. Moreover, non-humans close to us can be trained to behave in all sorts of ways in conformity with our own rules of conduct--e.g. dogs can be trained not to defecate in the house. Plus the sexual activity of other primates seems to involve something like rules of propriety as well as violations of those rules (e.g. deceptions and infidelities).  And, perhaps most of all, as anyone who's spent a lot of time with non-humans will know, a good deal of sexual activity engaged by non-humans close to us resembles rape, as it commonly involves the violent subduing of females by males. But still the question must be asked whether non-humans can come to grasp and self-regulate using norms of sexual conduct that would include prohibitions against rape. Dogs can be trained not to hump the legs of humans. Can they be trained to gain consent before engaging in sexual conduct? My guess is that the concept of consent or anything approximating the concept of consent is beyond them. Non-humans that live among humans and possess a sufficient level of intelligence and tractability may be capable of acquiring less violent forms of sexual activity, but without consent (both given and understood) the concept of rape just won't apply.</blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Fri, 26 Aug 2011 12:01:54 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4264</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Ethics, Feminism, Sex - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ Is it unethical to look at a woman's breasts? What if she has cleavage?
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>Here's a plausible principle: in general, we shouldn't do things that are likely to make people uncomfortable. This is particularly true if our only reason for doing whatever we're doing is that <em>we</em> get some sort of enjoyment out of it. And if we're in doubt about whether we're likely to make the person uncomfortable, better to err on the side of caution.</p><p>The principle is actually a broad one, as we can see if we change the example a bit. Suppose the person sitting across the room from me has a very sweet face. There's nothing wrong with noticing, but staring is another matter; that's likely to make the person uncomfortable. This is true even if the s/he has made some effort to highlight facial features. Noticing, even appreciating is one thing; staring, let alone ogling, is another. </p><p>That's the general advice. In real life, there are lots of subtleties. It's not unusual for one person to notice that another is "checking them out," as it's sometimes put, and to be flattered. That might be particularly true if the setting is a bar where people go to meet one another. But even there, the general rule is still a good one.</p><p>Maybe the simple version is this: I shouldn't be creepy. And if someone might well think what I'm doing is creepy -- even if I don't mean it to be -- I shouldn't do that either.<br /></p><p><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Thu, 25 Aug 2011 15:02:01 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4199</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Language, Sex - Allen Stairs responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ I have asked many regular non-philosopher type folks about how to avoid appearing "rude, crude and stupid" when indicating sexual interest in women. Not many well formed answers are given to me but I am told that a necessary ingredient is subtlety. You should never be direct about your intentions. Is being direct and straightforward really rude? What does saying that you must not be straightforward imply about the nature of those intentions in the first place? What then distinguishes rude from non-rude forms of expressing sexual intention? 
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Response from: Allen Stairs<br />

<blockquote><p>It's an interesting question and not easy to answer. Let's start with what may seem to be a minor point but actually isn't. It's not right that we should <em>never </em>be direct. The most obvious exception is when two people already have a sexual relationship and they're both comfortable about it. But even there, being blunt isn't always welcome. Sex isn't one-dimensional. There's lusty animal sex and there's also tender romantic sex. What works for one doesn't necessarily work for the other. </p><p>If it's complicated even for people who are in a relationship, it's not hard to see why rude and crude doesn't tend to work when that's not so. Human relationships just <em>are</em> complicated; after all, there are completely non-sexual matters that most of us don't like having broached too directly. When we add sex to the mix, things certainly won't get simpler. </p><p>Leave male vs. female aside for a moment. If someone <em>hints</em> to me that they're interested but the feeling isn't mutual, I can ignore the hint in ways that get the message across but don't hurting the other person's feelings or make them lose face. This doesn't go <em>just</em> for sex, but it seems safe to say that it goes particularly for sex. Being less direct can make things a lot less awkward. </p><p>A different sort of case might help. If I'm upset with someone, then depending on the relationship and the reasons, being clear and straightforward might be best. But the old saying "least said, easiest mended" often has a point. A certain amount of indirectness seems to make social life easier.</p><p>The fact of the matter is that there's a lot of communication that doesn't take place using words, and on the whole, we humans seem to like it this way. The advantage is that this adds a lot of nuance and subtlety to the way we communicate. But not everyone is equally fluent in the language of gesture, gaze, tone of voice and standard dictionaries are hard to find. </p><p>As noted, all of this is general and applied to a lot more than sex. But there's another issue here that's at least as important. There's often a lot at stake in sexual encounters, and there's usually a lot more at stake for a woman than for a man. For the most part, unwanted sexual attention isn't a problem for men. For women it very often is. At the very least, staying away from the rude and crude is a way of acknowledging that important fact.</p><p>--</p><p>Afternote: a friend pointed out this very instructive youtube video in which Steven Pinker says a lot about all these issues. Stick with it to the end.</p><p><a href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3-son3EJTrU">http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3-son3EJTrU</a><br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 07 Aug 2011 15:39:47 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4225</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Business, Sex - Richard Heck responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ According to Nicholas D. Smith in response to a question about sexual harassment legislation, "The minute someone in that place begins to give sexual attention to someone else in that workplace, the environment is changed--and changed in a way that makes the workplace no longer an entirely comfortable place to work." However the fact of the matter is that a great many people marry their coworkers and that studies show only a small percentage of those relationship were started by people who accidentally met up outside of work. If the purpose of sexual harassment legislation is to ban all interaction of a sexual nature between coworkers (since all sexual attention makes the workplace an uncomfortable place to work) then those marriages could not have occurred if sexual harassment law was 100% effective in achieving its supposed purpose. Since marriage is a highly regarded social institution isn't it highly unlikely that the purpose of sexual harassment legislation is to ban all sexual interaction between coworkers? And furthermore isn't it simply untrue that sexual attention is necessarily uncomfortable if it takes place in the workplace?
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Response from: Richard Heck<br />

<blockquote><p>As Nicholas said in response to the other question, there are questions to be asked about what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior in the workplace. And, while there are companies that prohibit co-workers from dating, most do not, which is simply to say that sexual harassment policies are <em>not</em> in general intended to prohibit all sexual interaction between co-workers, but only such interaction as, first, is unwelcome or unwanted and, second, constitutes a form of harassment. <br /></p><p>Even unwelcome sexual attention, by itself, does not constitute harassment, according to the definition promulgated by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, but only if:</p><ol><li>submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment,</li><li>submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individuals, or</li><li>such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.</li></ol><p>The first two conditions are kind of obvious. It is the last condition that can be harder to evaluate, in practice. </p><p>Asking someone out on a date, for example, all by itself, certainly would not constitute harassment under this definition. Indeed, as I understand it, merely asking someone out does not constitute an expression of "sexual interest", but of romantic interest, which is different. That said, the line here is blurry, and if the person doing the asking is in a position of authority over the other person, then we are on dangerous ground, since then condition (1) or (2) may be met. And repeatedly asking someone out could constitute harassment, as could asking every woman in the company out, since it is easy to see how condition (3) could be met in such a case.</p><p>Telling someone flat out that you'd love to get them in the sack is something else entirely. Most people would not receive such a remark as a compliment, for the simple reason that such a remark, made outside an appropriate sort of context or relationship, does not express any real appreciation for the other person, but only how that person might be used to satisfy one's own selfish desires. People rightly feel "objectified" by such comments and, as a result, self-conscious and otherwise uncomfortable, and that is why making such remarks can easily satisfy condition (3). That said, however, a single such remark probably does not constitute harassment, but a pattern of making such remarks very likely would. <br /></p><p>That said, companies have a right and duty to ensure that the workplace is free of intimidation, and they also have an interest in protecting themselves from litigation. So a company might have rules that prohibit the making of such remarks, for example, even though making one such remark might not constitute harassment. Such rules are perfectly understandable, seen from this point of view.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 07 Aug 2011 13:59:28 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4230</link>
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		<title><![CDATA[ Question about Business, Sex - Oliver Leaman responds]]></title>
		<description><![CDATA[ According to Nicholas D. Smith in response to a question about sexual harassment legislation, "The minute someone in that place begins to give sexual attention to someone else in that workplace, the environment is changed--and changed in a way that makes the workplace no longer an entirely comfortable place to work." However the fact of the matter is that a great many people marry their coworkers and that studies show only a small percentage of those relationship were started by people who accidentally met up outside of work. If the purpose of sexual harassment legislation is to ban all interaction of a sexual nature between coworkers (since all sexual attention makes the workplace an uncomfortable place to work) then those marriages could not have occurred if sexual harassment law was 100% effective in achieving its supposed purpose. Since marriage is a highly regarded social institution isn't it highly unlikely that the purpose of sexual harassment legislation is to ban all sexual interaction between coworkers? And furthermore isn't it simply untrue that sexual attention is necessarily uncomfortable if it takes place in the workplace?
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Response from: Oliver Leaman<br />

<blockquote><p>I think you are right, work is a major site of important relationships, and one cannot legislate that only professional relationships will be acceptable there. On the other hand, one can see why it is wrong to pervert a workplace in the name of a personal relationship, so I think the relevant issue is whether any such perversion takes place. Does the workplace become an uncomfortable environment for anyone as a result of personal relationships? This might be inevitable if someone has broken off an affair with a colleague and perhaps commenced another one with someone else in the same workplace. On the other hand, it might be argued that one has to get used to the idea that there may be people at work who are annoying, perhaps just because of who they are, how they dress, how far they have been promoted, and as professionals we need to cope with that and not allow it to distract us from our duties. We also ought not to allow a personal relationship to bias us in favour of particular colleagues as opposed to others. </p><p>Having admitted that is something of which we should be aware, we should then move onto considering ways of treating everyone fairly even if we cannot ignore our personal relationships with some of them. We cannot check our character at the door of the workplace and then assume it again when we leave. On the other hand, we should have enough control and self-awareness to make a decent job of operating fairly at work, as in other aspects of our lives.<br /></p></blockquote> ]]></description>
		<pubDate>Sun, 07 Aug 2011 13:59:28 EST</pubDate>
		<link>http://www.askphilosophers.org/question/4230</link>
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