Philosophy
This question might not be appropriate, but I'll try anyway. How is it that the precise meaning of the Waverly passage in Russell's "On Denoting" remains notoriously unclear? Russell died in 1970; I'm incredulous that while he was alive no one simply asked him what he had meant.
I am similarly amazed whenever there are exegetical questions about the work of any modern philosopher (e.g., Quine).
Accepted:September 14, 2008
Accepted:
September 14, 2008