Logic
David Hume famously pointed out that there seems to be a logical gap that prevents us from concluding "ought" from "is". It seem to me that the truth of this general observation is still under discussion. Does deontic logic shine any light on this question, as one would expect it to, or does the problem morph into the question which form deontic logic should take?
Accepted:January 26, 2011
Accepted:
January 26, 2011