Dear Philosophers,

Dear Philosophers,

Dear Philosophers, I would like to ask whether there is any reasonable explanation why many after/today's philosophers rather refer to Descartes than to Leibniz. Although Descartes had influenced significantly new modern era in philosophical thinking, so did Leibniz. Moreover, Leibniz proved some imperfections in Descartes’ metaphysics. I mean both of them deserve our attention, yet in my opinion Leibniz is somehow still in Descartes’ shadow. Why is that? Thank you in advance for any tangible arguments or inspiring ideas. Kind regards, Pablo

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