I am reading a logic book which discussed the differences between Aristotelian

I am reading a logic book which discussed the differences between Aristotelian

I am reading a logic book which discussed the differences between Aristotelian Logic and Boole-Russell (modern) Logic. If the Boole-Russell logic leaves 5 valid moods out, which Aristotelian Logic covers, why do we continue to use Boole-Russell logic if it is "incomplete" per se?

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