Recent Responses
If i define philosopher as lover of wisdom, how can i be sure that its a rational,critical and systematic investigation of the truths and principles of being, knowledge, or conduct(one of nowadays favoured definitions of philosophy, it seems to me)that brings wisdom? It seems quite bit too dogmatic to me. It seems like these epithets are implying the only way through one can gain wisdom, but what if there are others means to gain wisdom?
Allen Stairs
February 23, 2013
(changed February 23, 2013)
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If word origins were a good guide to the nature of a profession, a secretary would be a keeper of secrets and a plumber would be someone who works in lead. That suggests we have some reason to be suspicious at the outset. Even if we grant that "philosopher" comes from the Greek for "lover... Read more
An atheist friend and I (I am a theist) had a long series of discussions about the existence of god, and his comments made quite an impression on me. I found what he said so stimulating, in fact, that I beagn to read more philosophy of religion to help me better understand the nature of the issues raised. One question, however, is a bit puzzling, and I have not read much about it, though I have seen it raised in atheist/theist debates about the existence of god. The issue is simply falsifiabilty: how can we know if some occurrence of anything is an act of god and therefore, say, the result of prayer, or the result or effect of natural processes? For example, if I pray for a sick relative and she recovers, I can say god healed her; but I can also rightly argue that medical science healed her; or, even more precisely, physicians using medical knowledge stabilized her body so that it could heal itself. I know many theists regularly thank god for certain acts (many of which they pray for) that could easily be explained in more natural terms. How do we know when an act can rightly be attributed to god, and therefore the result of prayer, and when one can be attributed to something quite natural? I have considered various ideas (e.g. things one prays for that are congruent with some religious text are caused by god; things that are congruent with god's nature, i.e. good things, are caused by god; etc.), the answers I have considered seem problematic in one way or another.
Jonathan Westphal
February 22, 2013
(changed February 22, 2013)
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Charles Taliaferro's reply is very helpful. For me the two things that have the most importance for your question are the Wittgensteinian approach, in which the one who wants evidence that the good that happens is, indeed, the result of prayer, is slipping in and then out of the way o... Read more
Do you think jealousy is morally wrong or is it a natural thing to be jealous?
Charles Taliaferro
February 22, 2013
(changed February 22, 2013)
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A difficult question! There do seem to be clear cases of when jealousy is a vice, especially when it leads to violence and inordinate, misplaced rage. Imagine I am so possessive of my partner that I constantly read his emails to others (secretly and without permission), I rarely tr... Read more
An atheist friend and I (I am a theist) had a long series of discussions about the existence of god, and his comments made quite an impression on me. I found what he said so stimulating, in fact, that I beagn to read more philosophy of religion to help me better understand the nature of the issues raised. One question, however, is a bit puzzling, and I have not read much about it, though I have seen it raised in atheist/theist debates about the existence of god. The issue is simply falsifiabilty: how can we know if some occurrence of anything is an act of god and therefore, say, the result of prayer, or the result or effect of natural processes? For example, if I pray for a sick relative and she recovers, I can say god healed her; but I can also rightly argue that medical science healed her; or, even more precisely, physicians using medical knowledge stabilized her body so that it could heal itself. I know many theists regularly thank god for certain acts (many of which they pray for) that could easily be explained in more natural terms. How do we know when an act can rightly be attributed to god, and therefore the result of prayer, and when one can be attributed to something quite natural? I have considered various ideas (e.g. things one prays for that are congruent with some religious text are caused by god; things that are congruent with god's nature, i.e. good things, are caused by god; etc.), the answers I have considered seem problematic in one way or another.
Jonathan Westphal
February 22, 2013
(changed February 22, 2013)
Permalink
Charles Taliaferro's reply is very helpful. For me the two things that have the most importance for your question are the Wittgensteinian approach, in which the one who wants evidence that the good that happens is, indeed, the result of prayer, is slipping in and then out of the way o... Read more
I was recently at a job interview where I was informed that, if hired, I would have to sign a non-compete clause stating effectively that, if I were ever to leave my position at the company, I would be barred from taking up employment in that profession again for two years. To me, this seems extremely perverse. I invested a great deal of time and money and effort into educating myself in building a career in this particular domain, and I do not have the skills to support my family to a similar extent in any other career (the NCC is rather broad, if unambiguous, about which fields I may not enter). Is it ethical for a company to offer to end my unemployment while at the same time effectively threatening me with two years of un- or underemployment should I ever quit or be fired? This seems like an abuse of my vulnerability as a job seeker, at the very least.
Stephen Maitzen
February 21, 2013
(changed February 21, 2013)
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I share your view that such a clause is at best very shoddy. Not being a lawyer, I wonder if the clause is even enforceable; you might ask someone who'd know. It might be unconscionable (a term I wish lawyers applied to more things than they do!) and hence unenforceable, or it might be... Read more
Is it possible to have a liberal attitude toward sex and be opposed to abortion?
David Brink
February 21, 2013
(changed February 21, 2013)
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Why not? Though I'm not exactly sure what you have in mind about having a liberal attitude toward sex, I can imagine having permissive views about sex among consenting adults -- views that permit sex outside of wedlock, sex outside of stable monogamous relationships, kinky sex, etc -- and... Read more
"My body, my choice" is well known slogan from those who oppose laws that limit a woman's right to an abortion. Yet, the idea that a woman has a right to do what she wants to her body seems to have disturbing consequences. If a woman drinks too much alcohol or takes too many drugs then her baby will suffer the consequences. That child will then suffer many challenges in life because of his mothers supposed right to do what she wants with her body. Yet when I point this out to people they get angry and insist that I want to limit women's rights. In fact it makes me angry that anyone would disagree with the idea that a woman shouldn't be morally and legally responsible for the incalculable harm she can do to her baby by poisoning her fetus. I can grant that there are exceptions such as prescription medications but otherwise isn't the idea that women can't be held responsible for doing damage to a fetus that will then suffer after being born just a very extreme position even if its a popular belief? And I think men should be held responsible for the damage they do to their sperm by doing drugs or at least prevented from giving birth but then I guess that sound extreme as well.
Stephen Maitzen
February 21, 2013
(changed February 21, 2013)
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I'm no lawyer, but I believe that the courts in some U.S. jurisdictions allow a child to sue its mother for lasting harm she caused the child while it was in utero. (Here I'm assuming that the child is identical to something that was once in utero, an assumption not everyone will grant.... Read more
This quote, "It is harder to give rightly than to receive rightly" hit me in the face with awe but I have no idea what the meaning entails. I have not read Thus Spoke Zarathustra and so I do not know the context it was used in. I keep thinking about this quote because it makes me feel something...something I must hold on to. Can anyone please help me understand the breadth of this greatness? I appreciate it immensely.
Douglas Burnham
February 18, 2013
(changed February 18, 2013)
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You have alighted on an idea that also fascinates me. The quotation is from Thus Spoke Zarathustra, Part IV, section 8. This section is part of a series of fictionalised portraits of exceptional human types (or in some cases, individual persons). Nietzsche is interested in the philosoph... Read more
What interests me is the idea I've been hearing about a lot that sex should be used only for reproduction. The justification that I've heard for this statement is based on the idea that any other sexual activity that invlolves any kind of contraception is preventing a possible person from coming to life and possibly causing psychological harm for the people that engage in sex and also their future children as they might be carrying guilt (this I have heard from a psychologist, that uses Hellinger's method of phenomenological psychotherapy). Also other arguments that I have heard from other sources are saying that there is no other benefit in engaging in sexual activity apart from possible children and pleasure. As pleasure is considered to have a very short term value it is said that there is no rational reason to have sex when we do not want to reproduce, because the risks and the consequences are larger than the value of pleasure. Humans according to some theories have to sublimate their sexual energy to spiritual activities or any other self-realisation, because the modern society is degrading wich is caused by the consumer tendencies and pleasure seeking. That causes many modern world problems. It was claimed, that all ancient cultures had the same beliefs about sex for a reason, and that those values were universal. Also the principle of genetic teleology was mentioned. Sometimes I get mixed up understanding wich arguments about this should be called rational and justified by any logical or empirical evidence and how much of this is based on dogmas and plain beliefs. So, can such argumentation be taken seriously when trying to figure out this sex question? Also, does the possibility of God's and the human spirit's or soul's existence definately implies that sex is only for reproduction? What would be the opposing arguments against this idea and what would be the rational arguments for this?
Charles Taliaferro
February 16, 2013
(changed February 16, 2013)
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Interesting! Philosophers from Plato to Bertrand Russell and to more recent thinkers, have addressed the value and significance of sexuality. Whether you agree or disagree with his conclusions, Roger Scruton has a book Sexual Desire with terrific examples and very interesting argum... Read more
So I’m a doctoral student trying to become a physicist. As a philosopher though, I’m just a dilettante amateur. I might however, some day, wish to professionally develop and publish a philosophical paper (the assumption being that before attempting this, I rigorously research on whatever I wish to publish). How do I (or any amateur for that matter) go about doing that, without switching departments? I imagine that I’d have to contact a professor at some department, and if given encouraging words, I’d then submit to some journal. What is this process like for amateur philosophers in general (if it exists)?
Charles Taliaferro
February 16, 2013
(changed February 16, 2013)
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Great! Some journals do blind reviews and so your identity and thus your not being a professional philosopher in a department would not be know to those who are evaluating the work submitted. Though the initial review would be by the Editor in Chief or an assistant to her or him, a... Read more