I have a strong conviction. It's about free will. I don't think we have it.
1. We don't choose our preferences.
- I can't say we do, looking into myself and others I've talked to... Which ofcourse makes my basis for this assertion quite limited. So how is it? Do we choose our preferences?
2. We can't make choices outside of our preferences.
- Looking into myself and my choices, they're always dictated by my preferences. No matter how banale or how life changing the choice was. I chose as I preferred to choose.
(I call it choice even if I don't believe there ever was a choice per se, because there are options at hand, objectively speaking.)
Conclusion: We don't have free will. We can't choose any other way than we in fact choose.
Does this hold up as it stands?
Thanks in advance.
I am seeing a married man that had already started his divorce proceedings before we had our affair. His wife is a friend of mine and approves of our relationship because she still wants her husband around for advice and help but she is seeing other men and in fact has a stable relationship with one. I care for this man deeply and he has said he "loves me". From the beginning my guilt about being with a "married man" has haunted me from a religious point of view. I can't get around it. Now we are both in stressful situations where he is going to court (more than once because we are in Mexico and it takes a long time) and I am selling my house with a major issue with the closing. Since we have started to argue, I just want to break it up until his divorce goes through and my closing to get some breathing room. At this point, I don't even want to be with him. We were going to live together after I sold my house and feel this is a bad idea under the circumstances. In fact I feel my soul has been...
Hello philosophers in a recent debate I was involved in a theist stated
“For morality to be objective, moral propositions such as "Killing is bad","Stealing is bad", etc... need to be true independently of the person who is stating them. “
“That is the way this position is normally put but a problem arises as in if there are objective moral facts how would we know this to be the fact? To know something is an objective moral fact only needs an agent to know this , how can a moral fact be known independent of a human mind to decide?”
Is my position logically sound or are there problems with my reply?
In what extent through the philosophy of time, can it be said that there is no 'past' or 'future.' But that there is a only a eternal 'Now' and if that's the case, how should a philosopher or someone like me be able to explain this idea? Also if there is a eternal 'Now,' then could it be said that the Universe is only, and always present with no future or past.
how would i use natural deduction to prove this argument to be correct?
Its always either night or day.There'd only be a full moon if it were night-time. So,since it's daytime,there's no full moon right now.
i have also formalized the argument using truth functional logic
i'm not sure if it is completely correct though and would much appreciate the help.
Fm: full moon
Nt: night time
Dt: day time
((N V D) , (Fm → Nt) , (Dt → ¬Fm))