I am not schooled in philosophy but do enjoy thinking about philosophical questions. In the gaps of time I have in my ordinary day-to-day existence, I have given some thought to better understanding human behavior and have come to believe (or, more accurately, am trying to further refine my basic belief) that human beings "can not but act in their perceived best interests." I believe that each decision that an individual makes represents the sum of that individual's accrued experiences, which informs that individual's "decision" (and I believe the concept of "decision" to be a bit of a fiction, but I will use the term because I do not know a better term). I believe that, when confronted with a decision, an individual weighs, to a greater or lesser extent, depending on the gravity of the decision and the individual's degree of experience, sophistication, intelligence, etc., the sum of his/her experiences and ultimately makes a decision based on his/her perceived best interests at the time. I believe this...

Procrastination and weakness of the will (as when people continue to smoke and to eat a lot of red meat even while they understand the health risks and want to lead a long healthy life) are obvious problems for the view you are entertaining. Another problem is moral and altruistic conduct. You are kind to a stranger, or generous to a rival, at some cost to yourself -- are you acting in your own (perceived) best interest? Not in any ordinary sense. Agents themselves will often deny that they decided on the basis of what was in their own best interest: "Here I tried to act in his best interest, not my own." Now you can simply always overrule such agents. You might say that an agent's conscious conduct necessarily is conclusive evidence that she must be taking herself to have some interest that she takes this conduct to promote -- perhaps an interest in being regarded (by others or at least by herself) to be kind or generous, or a strong interest in smoking, eating red meat, or procrastinating....

No matter whether one adopts a deontological or consequentialist account of ethics it is apparent that there exists a moral imperative to prevent genocide. To what extent and to what cost this imperative must motivate our actions is, I suppose, a subject of serious debate, however. But how can we define genocide? Surely we can all agree that the murder of 10,000,000 people constitutes genocide. But what if we subtract one fatality? Still genocide, of course. Minus one more? The same is still true. But at some point that logic fails; when we get down to the death of one, a few, or no people we certainly no longer have a case of genocide on our hands. It seems there is a sorites paradox here. If the number of people killed is ultimately arbitrary, how is the concept of genocide meaningful? Surely we can still find moral value in the deaths of millions (or even in the death of an individual), but it seems the label in itself is ultimately kind of subjective and meaningless.

The number of victims is not the only consideration entering into the judgments of whether a genocide is taking place. Other relevant factors are the nature and size of the victim group and the motivations and intentions of the perpetrators. Still, we can hold these other factors fixed and ask your question again, for example: hypothetically lowering the number of people killed, maimed, raped, and otherwise brutalized in the Rwanda genocide, when do we reach the point at which the genocide label would no longer be applicable? Or: at what time, in those horrible months of early 1994, did the daily decision of the world's leading governments not to intervene become a decision to ignore a genocide? You're right that there is some vagueness here. But this does not render the term meaningless. As Wittgenstein writes, there may be some unclarity about where exactly the boundary lies between two countries -- say between China and Russia -- but this does not entail that it's unclear on which side Beijing or...

Richard Holloway, in 'Godless Morality', argues that "ritual practice" is not the same as "ethical principle." As an example, he argues that the practice of refraining from eating pork in Muslim and Jewish religious cultures is not per se an ethical action, merely the instantiation of an ethical principle which is keeping a promise to one's god. Thus, to eat pork, the ethical principle broken would be that of breaking a promise; the eating of pork itself would not be unethical, as the proscription of pork was merely a historical/sociological/anthropological/geographical accidentality. Clearly there are many ways to break a promise, but only one ethical principle for each 'set' of manifestations of it (following Holloway's theory). The above is, at any rate, the way I have tried to explain it to my grade 12 (last year of high school) Philosophy students. Does this explanation hold, and what are the problems with it? (I am presuming it is problematic because, although it appears convincing, I am still...

One distinction at work here is that between (as I would say) duties and obligations. We are subject to certain (general) duties regardless of circumstances, and we acquire (specific) obligations pursuant to such a duty in the presence of certain triggering conditions contained in this duty. To use the example you give: we have a duty to (try hard to) fulfill our promises, and therefore an obligation to (try hard to) abstain from pork if this is what we've promised. Or another example: I have a duty to rescue people from a serious emergency if I can do so safely, and therefore an obligation to save this child in danger of drowning in a shallow pond nearby. Now using this distinction, one may argue with Holloway that there is no duty to abstain from pork, only an obligation on the part of those who have made a promise to do so. But is this the correct reconstruction of what Muslims and Jews believe? If this were the correct reconstruction, then Muslims and Jews would have to believe either ...

Can there be a moral duty not to help? Suppose two persons, A and B. A suffers from an illness that makes him behave antisocially, at times constituting a danger both to himself and to others. B, a close relative, has been caring for A for many years, preventing A from the most serious consequences (jail/psychiatric clinic). However, A's state of health is not improving. Doctors suggest that B's help may indeed be counterproductive - they suppose that A needs to feel the consequences of his acts to find the strength to fight his disease. How to act in this situation, from a moral point of view? Imagine A, not 'supervised' by B anymore, injured another person. Even if the punishment helped A, what about the damaged person? And what if the punishment did not help?

I think you are using the verb "help" in two different senses. When you talk about B helping A, you mean something like B intervening in A's situation with the intent of improving it. When you speak of the punishment helping A, you mean the punishment actually improving A's situation. Either sense can apply without the other. It's pretty obvious that there can be a moral duty not to help in the first sense. In many cases, an amateur should not help others in situations she does not understand, for example, when there possibly is a considerable danger of her making matters worse. There can also be duties not to help in the second sense -- for instance in situations where the potential helpee is explicitly asking not to be helped. A frail man is struggling to get up from his wheelchair. You walk over to help; but he says "please don't help me, I want to do this on my own." It seems right that such duties not to help (in both senses) may give way when the interests of third parties are affected...

Suppose that I know all the laws of physics and the position of all the atoms in the universe. I flip a coin. Obviously I will know with 100% certainty what the outcome will be. Suppose I am a mere mortal, I will only be able to say that there is a 50% chance of heads and a 50% chance of tails. So probability is a measure of our ignorance? That cannot be right! Probability is something intrinsic to reality. But how can an uncertainty be intrinsic without reference to a knower?

Sometimes probability is a measure of our ignorance. If you give me a quarter with the instruction to hide it in one of my fisted hands while your eyes are closed (and I do as you say), then you'll not know which hand holds the coin. (I will know, I can feel it.) So you can only assign probabilities because you lack knowledge. In other cases, probability is objective. If current physics is right, then some processes in nature are in principle unpredictable or such that their outcome is uncertain. Yes, this suggests some reference to a knower: it means that it's impossible for there to be someone who can predict or be certain about the outcome. But why should this be problematic? The fact that a black hole emits no light can be expressed by saying that black holes are invisible - and yet the fact is "intrinsic to reality," involves no essential reference to beings with eyes.

I have been reading Robert Nozick’s Philosophical Explanations (a difficult text indeed) and have a question about his theory of knowledge; specifically, Nozick concedes to the knowledge skeptic that we cannot know, say, if we are a brain in a vat on Alpha Centauri (our experience of the world would be identical, says the skeptic, to what it is now, so we cannot know); but he then also notes that it does not follow that I cannot know, say, that I am typing on my computer. If I understand correctly, Nozick holds that my belief that I am typing tracks the fact that I am typing; I would not have the belief that I am typing if I were not typing. This, however, seems problematic to me; it seems to beg the question, i.e. assume the “fact” that I am typing is indeed a fact. Isn’t this what we precisely do not know according to the skeptic? What if I see a perceptual distortion, for example, a pencil wobbling like rubber when I place it between my thumb and index finger and quickly move it back and forth? My...

Well spotted! Nozick holds that, in order for you to know p, it must be the case that, if p were false, you wouldn't believe p. This condition is not fulfilled when p is "it is not the case that I am a brain in a vat on Alpha Centauri being stimulated to have my present experiences": if p were false (if I were a brain in a vat on Alpha Centuri being stimulated to have my present experiences), then I would nonetheless be believing p. But this condition may well be fulfilled when p is "I am typing." It is fulfilled if, were I not typing, I wouldn't believe that I am. With this move, Nozick takes himself to have shown at least how knowledge is possible: it's possible that I am really typing and that, if I weren't typing, I wouldn't believe that I am. But do I know that I am typing or do I not? Well, according to Nozick, this depends on what I would believe if I weren't typing now. Nozick assumes that there's a definite answer to this question, a fact of the matter. But, even if we grant this,...

Theist: We should follow the Bible, and the Bible says that there is a God. Atheist: Why should we follow the Bible? Theist: Because the Bible says we should. Atheist: That’s circular reasoning. But then the Atheist says: We shouldn’t believe in God. Here’s logic to show he doesn't exist. Me: Why should we follow logic? Atheist: We’ve come to the conclusion that logic, and not the Bible, is right by using logic. Me: Is this not also circular reasoning? Someone please tell me why I’m wrong. Also, if I just disproved the validity of logic but used logic to disprove it, does that mean my argument is no longer valid because it’s based on logic, which is no longer valid. But if my claim is no longer valid that disproved logic, does that mean that logic is ok now. But then, that would mean that my argument is still ok, which means that… I think you get the idea. Someone please tell me why I’m wrong before my head explodes.

Fair enough, you cannot support logic by appeal to logic. But this does not disprove logic. It just shows that one attempt to justify logic is unsuccessful. How then do we justify logic, or the Bible for that matter? You seem to think of justification as starting with nothing -- and then it's indeed hard to see how anything can ever be justified. But in real life, when we justify, or question, something we always take other things for granted: other beliefs, modes of inquiry, methods of reasoning, and so on. Each of them can be questioned too, of course, but we cannot question all of them together at once. Nothing justifies our thinking as a whole, though every part of it can be justified (or disqualified) by its fit (or incoherence) with the rest. If logic (or the Bible) makes sense to you and helps you make sense of the world, then you have a good justification for continuing to rely on it. If you find incoherence in logic, or between logic and something else you have been relying on, then you need...

A friend posed a problem that according to him reveals an inconsistency in mathematics. There are two envelopes with money in them, and you are given one envelope. One envelope has twice the amount of money as the other, but you don't know which one is which. The question is, if you are trying to maximize your money, after you are given your envelope, should you switch to the other envelope if given the chance? One analysis is: let a denote the smaller amount. Either you have a or 2a in your envelope, and you would switch to 2a or a, respectively, and since these have the same chance of happening before and after, you don't improve and it doesn't matter if you switch. The other analysis is: let x denote the value in your envelope. The other envelope has either twice what is in yours or it has half of what is in yours. Each of these has probability of .5, so .5(2x) + .5(.5x) = 1.2x, which is greater than the x that you started with, so you do improve and should switch. Is there something wrong with...

Wouldn't it be nice if mathematics could be brought down so easily! But, sorry, no cigar this time. It is indeed true that the probability that you are holding the fat or meager envelope is 50/50. Here are the two cases: 1. If you are holding the meager envelope, then switching gets you from x to 2x for a gain of x. 2. If you are holding the fat envelope, then switching gets you from x to 1/2 x for a loss of 1/2 x. But note that the "x" in these two cases does not signify the same amount of money. In Case 1, x is the smaller amount. In Case 2, x is the larger amount. In Case 1, your gain from switching is the smaller amount. In Case 2, your loss from switching is 1/2 the larger amount (equal to the smaller amount). The illusion arises because, at first blush, the situation seems similar to another where someone offers to give you 50/50 odds on either doubling or halving some fixed amount of money you have. There your reasoning goes through and you are well-advised to accept. Your...

What use are philosophers to Modern Society? I mean, in the eyes of modern society, the objective in life is to earn a living, and how best to earn it. But we can't seem to put to use knowledge like "Whether absolute truth exist". So is there more to it, or are we mere entertainers to satisfy human inquiries that could just be disregarded and forgotten later on?

Well, if THE objective in life really is to make money without too much effort, then indeed there isn't much use for philosophical inquiries -- there are better ways of earning money than by being a philosopher. But is earning a living in the best way really the (one and only) objective in life? I think most people would say that there are other important objectives as well: love, religion, friendship, music, sports, and so on -- but of course people have different views about what matters and how much. So here philosophy comes in, helping us to think clearly and wisely about what matters in life. Perhaps earning an easy living is really the best way to live. But wouldn't you want to think about this, and the alternatives, a bit before you commit yourself to such a life?

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