What if a person continues to wish evil, (e.g., that someone dies) but is only

What if a person continues to wish evil, (e.g., that someone dies) but is only

What if a person continues to wish evil, (e.g., that someone dies) but is only refrained from action (murder) by practical concerns (such as fear of incarceration)? What is the moral difference between that wish, and the act? (Btw, thanks Nicholas D. Smith for your excellent answer [to a related question: http://www.amherst.edu/askphilosophers/question/974].)

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