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ASK A QUESTION RECENT RESPONSES CONCEPT CLOUD
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This is a follow-up to the question "What is the difference between analytical and continental philosophy?". Even if the distinction should be retired, it still gets used, and those of us outside the profession don't have a sense of what the terms mean. It would still be useful to give us a sense of what the (stereotyped, misleading) distinction is supposed to be.
October 11, 2005
Like others, I believe that this popular dichotomy is in many ways more
pernicious than helpful. Nonetheless, it might be helpful to make the
following observations. The Western philosophical tradition has its
roots in Ancient Greece. After the European rediscovery of Aristotle
during the Crusades, this tradition continued in Europe and eventually
in the United States and Europe's other former colonies. In the early twentieth
century, this tradition broke into two distinct styles of approaching
philosophical questions: the so-called Analytic or Anglo-American
tradition (influenced by philosophers Frege, Russell, Wittgenstein,
Moore, Carnap, and Quine, some of whom, as has already been observed,
are neither Anglo nor American) and the so-called Continental tradition
that continued in continental Europe (whose foundational figure is the
19th century German philosopher Hegel, and which also includes such
philosophers as Kierkegaard, Marx, Nietzsche, Heidegger, and Sartre).
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