ASK A QUESTION
Hi, I've been reading about transfinite cardinal numbers and was wondering if you could answer this question. Supposedly the set of integers has the same cardinality as the set of even integers (both are countably infinite) since there exists a bijection between the two sets. But at the same time, doesn't there also exist a function between the set of even integers and the set of integers that is injective while NOT bijective (g(x) = x), since the image of f does not compose all of the integers (only the even ones)?
August 17, 2009