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Would an omnipotent and omniscient being be bound by the laws of logic? If so, to what degree?

September 26, 2012

Response from Stephen Maitzen on September 27, 2012
Yes. Completely. The tricky question is why. It's tempting to answer that necessarily everything is bound by the laws of logic because the alternative -- the claim that something isn't bound by the laws of logic -- is necessarily false. But, as I suggested in my reply to Question 4837, no sense can be attached to the claim that something isn't bound by the laws of logic. So the claim can't be false, strictly speaking. Perhaps all we can assert is a wide-scope negation: it's not the case that something isn't bound by the laws of logic, just as it's not the case that @#$%^&*. Necessarily everything is bound by the laws of logic because the alternative is literally nonsense? I wish I had a better explanation!


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