During a 'debate' with a friend about same sex marriage, he raised the issue of marriage being 'by definition union between a man and a woman', and appeared to hold that this was grounds for rejecting same sex marriage. My question does not relate to the ethics surrounding the issue, but rather to the fallacy I thought he had commited in saying this. It seemed to me as if he was stating the conclusion of an argument that had not been argued (at least, not by us either at or prior to that time) namely whether marriage is, in fact, the union as mentioned - is this what is known as 'begging the question' (i.e., stating a point that remains to be proven as foundation for another conclusion)? If not, then what is the formal term for this fallacy (if it is, indeed, fallacious)?
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